The range ofAlso, individualbinomial probabilitiesare non-negative. the binomial distribution is {0, 1, 2,...,n} so the summation in question is $n x=0 p(x). Thekey to showingthat$ n x=0 p(x)=1, as youwill seeinthe next activity,isthe binomial theorem of mathematics, which canbewritten (a + b) n = n 1 x=0 ! n x - a x b n−x .
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