The range ofAlso, individualbinomial probabilitiesare non-negative. the binomial distribution is {0, 1, 2,...,n} so the summation in question is $ n x=0 p(x). Thekey to showingthat $ n x=0 p(x)=1, as youwill seeinthe next activity,isthe binomial theorem of mathematics, which canbewritten (a + b) n = n 1 x=0 ! n x - a x b n−x .
If you want to change selection, open document below and click on "Move attachment"
pdf
owner:
Gavin - (no access) - m248_unit03_e2i1.pdf, p18
Summary
| status | not read | | reprioritisations | |
|---|
| last reprioritisation on | | | suggested re-reading day | |
|---|
| started reading on | | | finished reading on | |
|---|
Details