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Flashcard 1432921705740

Tags
#sister-miriam-joseph #trivium
Question
Only the [...] exists in the sense that every material being that exists or has existed is [...] , is itself and not another, and is, therefore, in its [...]
Answer
individual

an individual

individuality unique.

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Only the individual exists in the sense that every material being that exists or has existed is an individual, is itself and not another, and is, therefore, in its individuality unique.

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Flashcard 1439725391116

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #microeconomics #reading-16-the-firm-and-market-structures #study-session-4
Question

In less competitive markets, [...] even in the long run; in the short run, any outcome is possible.

Answer
large profits are possible

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rm’s profitability will be determined by the forces associated with the market structure within which it operates. In a highly competitive market, long-run profits will be driven down by the forces of competition. In less competitive markets, <span>large profits are possible even in the long run; in the short run, any outcome is possible. Therefore, understanding the forces behind the market structure will aid the financial analyst in determining firms’ sho

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1. INTRODUCTION
The purpose of this reading is to build an understanding of the importance of market structure. As different market structures result in different sets of choices facing a firm’s decision makers, an understanding of market structure is a powerful tool in analyzing issues such as a firm’s pricing of its products and, more broadly, its potential to increase profitability. In the long run, a firm’s profitability will be determined by the forces associated with the market structure within which it operates. In a highly competitive market, long-run profits will be driven down by the forces of competition. In less competitive markets, large profits are possible even in the long run; in the short run, any outcome is possible. Therefore, understanding the forces behind the market structure will aid the financial analyst in determining firms’ short- and long-term prospects. Section 2 introduces the analysis of market structures. The section addresses questions such as: What determines the degree of competition associated with each market struc







Flashcard 1442513816844

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #factors-that-determine-market-structures #microeconomics #porter-5-forces #reading-16-the-firm-and-market-structures #section-2-analysis-of-mkt-structures #study-session-4
Question
Some stock analysts (e.g., Dorsey 2004) use the term “economic moat” to suggest that there are [...]
Answer
factors protecting the profitability of a firm.

Similar to the moats (ditches full of water) that used to protect some medieval castles.

A deep moat means that there is little or no threat of entry by invaders, i.e. competitors. It also means that customers are locked in because of high switching costs.

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Some stock analysts (e.g., Dorsey 2004) use the term “economic moat” to suggest that there are factors protecting the profitability of a firm that are similar to the moats (ditches full of water) that used to protect some medieval castles. A deep moat means that there is little or no threat of entry by invaders, i.e. competit

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2. ANALYSIS OF MARKET STRUCTURES
d monopoly is the local electrical power provider. In most cases, the monopoly power provider is allowed to earn a normal return on its investment and prices are set by the regulatory authority to allow that return. <span>2.2. Factors That Determine Market Structure Five factors determine market structure: The number and relative size of firms supplying the product; The degree of product differentiation; The power of the seller over pricing decisions; The relative strength of the barriers to market entry and exit; and The degree of non-price competition. The number and relative size of firms in a market influence market structure. If there are many firms, the degree of competition increases. With fewer firms supplying a good or service, consumers are limited in their market choices. One extreme case is the monopoly market structure, with only one firm supplying a unique good or service. Another extreme is perfect competition, with many firms supplying a similar product. Finally, an example of relative size is the automobile industry, in which a small number of large international producers (e.g., Ford and Toyota) are the leaders in the global market, and a number of small companies either have market power because they are niche players (e.g., Ferrari) or have little market power because of their narrow range of models or limited geographical presence (e.g., Škoda). In the case of monopolistic competition, there are many firms providing products to the market, as with perfect competition. However, one firm’s product is differentiated in some way that makes it appear better than similar products from other firms. If a firm is successful in differentiating its product, the differentiation will provide pricing leverage. The more dissimilar the product appears, the more the market will resemble the monopoly market structure. A firm can differentiate its product through aggressive advertising campaigns; frequent styling changes; the linking of its product with other, complementary products; or a host of other methods. When the market dictates the price based on aggregate supply and demand conditions, the individual firm has no control over pricing. The typical hog farmer in Nebraska and the milk producer in Bavaria are price takers . That is, they must accept whatever price the market dictates. This is the case under the market structure of perfect competition. In the case of monopolistic competition, the success of product differentiation determines the degree with which the firm can influence price. In the case of oligopoly, there are so few firms in the market that price control becomes possible. However, the small number of firms in an oligopoly market invites complex pricing strategies. Collusion, price leadership by dominant firms, and other pricing strategies can result. The degree to which one market structure can evolve into another and the difference between potential short-run outcomes and long-run equilibrium conditions depend on the strength of the barriers to entry and the possibility that firms fail to recoup their original costs or lose money for an extended period of time and are therefore forced to exit the market. Barriers to entry can result from very large capital investment requirements, as in the case of petroleum refining. Barriers may also result from patents, as in the case of some electronic products and drug formulas. Another entry consideration is the possibility of high exit costs. For example, plants that are specific to a special line of products, such as aluminum smelting plants, are non-redeployable, and exit costs would be high without a liquid market for the firm’s assets. High exit costs deter entry and are therefore also considered barriers to entry. In the case of farming, the barriers to entry are low. Production of corn, soybeans, wheat, tomatoes, and other produce is an easy process to replicate; therefore, those are highly competitive markets. Non-price competition dominates those market structures where product differentiation is critical. Therefore, monopolistic competition relies on competitive strategies that may not include pricing changes. An example of non-price competition is product differentiation through marketing. In other circumstances, non-price competition may occur because the few firms in the market feel dependent on each other. Each firm fears retaliatory price changes that would reduce total revenue for all of the firms in the market. Because oligopoly industries have so few firms, each firm feels dependent on the pricing strategies of the others. Therefore, non-price competition becomes a dominant strategy. Exhibit 1. Characteristics of Market Structure Market Structure Number of Sellers Degree of Product Differentiation Barriers to Entry Pricing Power of Firm Non-price Competition Perfect competition Many Homogeneous/ Standardized Very Low None None Monopolistic competition Many Differentiated Low Some Advertising and Product Differentiation Oligopoly Few Homogeneous/ Standardized High Some or Considerable Advertising and Product Differentiation Monopoly One Unique Product Very High Considerable Advertising From the perspective of the owners of the firm, the most desirable market structure is that with the most control over price, because this control can lead to large profits. Monopoly and oligopoly markets offer the greatest potential control over price; monopolistic competition offers less control. Firms operating under perfectly competitive market conditions have no control over price. From the consumers’ perspective, the most desirable market structure is that with the greatest degree of competition, because prices are generally lower. Thus, consumers would prefer as many goods and services as possible to be offered in competitive markets. As often happens in economics, there is a trade-off. While perfect competition gives the largest quantity of a good at the lowest price, other market forms may spur more innovation. Specifically, there may be high costs in researching a new product, and firms will incur such costs only if they expect to earn an attractive return on their research investment. This is the case often made for medical innovations, for example—the cost of clinical trials and experiments to create new medicines would bankrupt perfectly competitive firms but may be acceptable in an oligopoly market structure. Therefore, consumers can benefit from less-than-perfectly-competitive markets. PORTER’S FIVE FORCES AND MARKET STRUCTURE A financial analyst aiming to establish market conditions and consequent profitability of incumbent firms should start with the questions framed by Exhibit 1: How many sellers are there? Is the product differentiated? and so on. Moreover, in the case of monopolies and quasi monopolies, the analyst should evaluate the legislative and regulatory framework: Can the company set prices freely, or are there governmental controls? Finally, the analyst should consider the threat of competition from potential entrants. This analysis is often summarized by students of corporate strategy as “Porter’s five forces,” named after Harvard Business School professor Michael E. Porter. His book, Competitive Strategy, presented a systematic analysis of the practice of market strategy. Porter (2008) identified the five forces as: Threat of entry; Power of suppliers; Power of buyers (customers); Threat of substitutes; and Rivalry among existing competitors. It is easy to note the parallels between four of these five forces and the columns in Exhibit 1. The only “orphan” is the power of suppliers, which is not at the core of the theoretical economic analysis of competition, but which has substantial weight in the practical analysis of competition and profitability. Some stock analysts (e.g., Dorsey 2004) use the term “economic moat” to suggest that there are factors protecting the profitability of a firm that are similar to the moats (ditches full of water) that used to protect some medieval castles. A deep moat means that there is little or no threat of entry by invaders, i.e. competitors. It also means that customers are locked in because of high switching costs. <span><body><html>







Flashcard 1442916470028

Tags
#estructura-interna-de-las-palabras #formantes-morfológicos #gramatica-española #la #morfología #tulio
Question



a. Los formantes léxicos se agrupan en [...].

Answer
clases abiertas

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Del inventario de formantes reconocidos, reconoceremos dos clases: a. Los formantes léxicos: tienen un significado léxico, que se define en el diccionario: gota, cuenta. Se agrupan en clases abiertas. Pertenecen a una clase particular de palabras: sustantivos (gota), adjetivos (útil), adverbios (ayer), verbos (cuenta). Pueden ser: - palabras simples (gota, útil, ayer); -

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La estructura interna de la palabra
1. Los formantes morfológicos Una palabra tiene estructura interna cuando contiene más de un formante morfológico. Un formante morfológico o morfema es una unidad mínima que consta de una forma fonética y de un significado. Comparemos las siguientes palabras: gota, gotas, gotita, gotera, cuentagotas. Gota es la única de estas palabras que consta de un solo formante. Carece, entonces, de estructura interna. Es una palabra simple. Todas las otras palabras tienen estructura interna. [31] Los formantes que pueden aparecer como palabras independientes son formas libres. Los otros, los que necesariamente van adosados a otros morfe- mas, son formas ligadas. Cuentagotas contiene dos formantes que pueden aparecer cada uno como palabra independiente. Es una palabra compuesta. Gotas, gotita y gotera también contienen dos formantes, pero uno de ellos (-s, -ita, -era) nunca puede ser una palabra independiente. Son formas ligadas que se denominan afijos. Algunos afijos van pospuestos a la base (gota), como los de nuestros ejemplos: son los s u f i j o s . Otros afijos la preceden: in-útil, des-contento, a-político: Son los prefijos. Las palabras que contienen un afijo se denominan palabras complejas. Del inventario de formantes reconocidos, reconoceremos dos clases: a. Algunos son formantes léxicos: tienen un significado léxico, que se define en el diccionario: gota, cuenta. Se agrupan en clases abiertas. Pertenecen a una clase particular de palabras: sustantivos (gota), adjetivos (útil), adverbios (ayer), verbos (cuenta). Pueden ser: - palabras simples (gota, útil, ayer); - base a la que se adosan los afijos en palabras complejas (got-, politic-); - parte de una palabra, compuesta (cuenta, gotas). b. Otros son formantes gramaticales: tienen significado gramatical, no léxico. Se agrupan en clases cerradas. Pueden ser: - palabras independientes: preposiciones (a, de, por), conjunciones (que, si); - afijos en palabras derivadas (-s, -ero, in-, des-); - menos frecuentemente, formantes de compuestos (aun-que, por-que, si-no). Entre las palabras no simples consideradas hasta aquí, cada una contenía sólo dos formantes. En otras un mismo tipo de formantes se repite: - sufijos: region-al-izar, util-iza-ble; - prefijos: des-com-poner. ex-pro-soviético, o también formantes de diferentes tipos pueden combinarse entre sí: - prefijo y sufijo: des-leal-tad, em-pobr-ecer; - palabra compuesta y sufijo: rionegr-ino, narcotrafic-ante. En la combinación de prefijación y sufijación, se distinguen dos casos, ilustrados en nuestros ejemplos. En deslealtad, la aplicación de cada uno de los afijos da como resultado una palabra bien formada: si aplicamos sólo el prefijo se obtiene el adjetivo desleal; si aplicamos sólo el sufijo el resultado será el sustantivo lealtad. En cambio, en empobrecer, si se aplica sólo un afijo [32] el resultado no será una palabra existente: *empobre, *pobrecer. Prefijo y sufijo se aplican simultáneamente, constituyendo un único formante morfológico – discontinuo– que se añade a ambos lados de la base léxica. Este segundo caso se denomina parasíntesis. Para establecer la estructura interna de las palabras, la morfología se ocupa de: a. identificar los formantes morfológicos; b. determinar las posibles variaciones que éstos presenten; c. describir los procesos involucrados; d. reconocer la organización de las palabras. 2. Identificación de los formantes morfológicos Comparemos ahora las siguientes palabras: sol, sol-ar; sol-azo, quita- sol, gira-sol, solter-o, solaz. En las







Flashcard 1615999405324

Tags
#cashflow-statement #indirect-method
Question
Why do they add back losses and subtract gains from investing or financing activities?
Answer
The gains and losses from the disposal of fixed assets appear on the income statement and the cash flow will appear as an investing activity

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Subject 2. Preparing the Cash Flow Statement
r allocation of original purchase cost to this period. As a result, expenses increase without a corresponding cash outlay. Since depreciation does not affect cash flow, it should be added back to net income to compute net CFO. 3. <span>Add back losses and subtract gains from investing or financing activities. Examples include gains/losses from sale of property, plants and equipment (investing activity) or gains/losses from early retirement of debt (financing activity). Why? Disposal of fixed







decreased muscle mass would be expected to cause long-term decreases in the serum creatinine
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Flashcard 1634694728972

Question
decreased muscle mass would be expected to cause long-term decreases in the serum [...]
Answer
creatinine

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decreased muscle mass would be expected to cause long-term decreases in the serum creatinine

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serum creatinine is expected to increase by 25% to 30% with appropriate dosing of an ACE inhibitor
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Flashcard 1634697874700

Question
serum creatinine is expected to increase by [...] with appropriate dosing of an ACE inhibitor
Answer
25% to 30%

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serum creatinine is expected to increase by 25% to 30% with appropriate dosing of an ACE inhibitor

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patient with stage G4/A3 CKD should receive the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV-13) 1 or more years after the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV-23). A second dose of PPSV-23 should be administered 5 or more years after the first dose.
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Flashcard 1634701282572

Question
patient with stage G4/A3 CKD should receive the 13-valent pneumococcal [...] vaccine (PCV-13) 1 or more years after the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV-23). A second dose of PPSV-23 should be administered 5 or more years after the first dose.
Answer
conjugate

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patient with stage G4/A3 CKD should receive the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV-13) 1 or more years after the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV-23). A second dose of PPSV-23 should be administered 5 or more years after the first dos

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Flashcard 1634702855436

Question
patient with stage G4/A3 CKD should receive the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV-13) [...] years after the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV-23). A second dose of PPSV-23 should be administered 5 or more years after the first dose.
Answer
1 or more

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patient with stage G4/A3 CKD should receive the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV-13) 1 or more years after the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV-23). A second dose of PPSV-23 should be administered 5 or more years after the first dose.</ht

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Flashcard 1634704428300

Question
patient with stage G4/A3 CKD should receive the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV-13) 1 or more years after the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV-23). A second dose of PPSV-23 should be administered [...] years after the first dose.
Answer
5 or more

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pan>patient with stage G4/A3 CKD should receive the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV-13) 1 or more years after the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV-23). A second dose of PPSV-23 should be administered 5 or more years after the first dose.<span><body><html>

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Other immunocompromising conditions that are indications for pneumococcal vaccination are anatomic and functional asplenia, congenital or acquired immunodeficiency (including B- or T-lymphocyte deficiency, complement deficiencies, and phagocytic disorders excluding chronic granulomatous disease), HIV infection, the nephrotic syndrome, leukemia, lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, generalized malignancy, multiple myeloma, solid-organ transplant, and iatrogenic immunosuppression (including long-term systemic glucocorticoids and radiation therapy)
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Flashcard 1634707836172

Question
Other immunocompromising conditions that are indications for pneumococcal vaccination are
Answer
anatomic and functional asplenia, congenital or acquired immunodeficiency (including B- or T-lymphocyte deficiency, complement deficiencies, and phagocytic disorders excluding chronic granulomatous disease), HIV infection, the nephrotic syndrome, leukemia, lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, generalized malignancy, multiple myeloma, solid-organ transplant, and iatrogenic immunosuppression (including long-term systemic glucocorticoids and radiation therapy)

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Other immunocompromising conditions that are indications for pneumococcal vaccination are anatomic and functional asplenia, congenital or acquired immunodeficiency (including B- or T-lymphocyte deficiency, complement deficiencies, and phagocytic disorders excluding chronic granulomatous disease), HIV infection, the nephrotic syndrome, leukemia, lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, generalized malignancy, multiple myeloma, solid-organ transplant, and iatrogenic immunosuppression (including long-term systemic glucocorticoids and radiation therapy)

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patients younger than 65 years of age with CKD who have not been previously immunized against invasive pneumococcal disease, the ACIP recommends that PCV-13 be administered first followed by PPSV-23 no sooner than 8 weeks later.
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Flashcard 1634710981900

Question
patients younger than 65 years of age with CKD who have not been previously immunized against invasive pneumococcal disease, the ACIP recommends that [...] be administered first followed by PPSV-23 no sooner than 8 weeks later.
Answer
PCV-13

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patients younger than 65 years of age with CKD who have not been previously immunized against invasive pneumococcal disease, the ACIP recommends that PCV-13 be administered first followed by PPSV-23 no sooner than 8 weeks later.

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Flashcard 1634712554764

Question
patients younger than 65 years of age with CKD who have not been previously immunized against invasive pneumococcal disease, the ACIP recommends that PCV-13 be administered first followed by [...] no sooner than 8 weeks later.
Answer
PPSV-23

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patients younger than 65 years of age with CKD who have not been previously immunized against invasive pneumococcal disease, the ACIP recommends that PCV-13 be administered first followed by PPSV-23 no sooner than 8 weeks later.

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Flashcard 1634714127628

Question
patients younger than 65 years of age with CKD who have not been previously immunized against invasive pneumococcal disease, the ACIP recommends that PCV-13 be administered first followed by PPSV-23 no sooner than [...] weeks later.
Answer
8

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><head>patients younger than 65 years of age with CKD who have not been previously immunized against invasive pneumococcal disease, the ACIP recommends that PCV-13 be administered first followed by PPSV-23 no sooner than 8 weeks later.<html>

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Differentiating the cause of a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis may be accomplished by measurement of the urine anion gap, which is calculated as follows: (UNa + UK − UCl). The urine anion gap is a surrogate method of estimating the ability of the kidney to excrete an acid load.
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Flashcard 1634719894796

Question
Differentiating the cause of a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis may be accomplished by measurement of the urine anion gap, which is calculated as follows: [...] The urine anion gap is a surrogate method of estimating the ability of the kidney to excrete an acid load.
Answer
(UNa + UK − UCl).

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Differentiating the cause of a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis may be accomplished by measurement of the urine anion gap, which is calculated as follows: (UNa + UK − UCl). The urine anion gap is a surrogate method of estimating the ability of the kidney to excrete an acid load.

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because ammonium carries a positive charge, chloride is excreted into the urine in equal amounts with ammonium to maintain electrical neutrality.
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Flashcard 1634723040524

Question
because ammonium carries a positive charge, [...] is excreted into the urine in equal amounts with ammonium to maintain electrical neutrality.
Answer
chloride

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because ammonium carries a positive charge, chloride is excreted into the urine in equal amounts with ammonium to maintain electrical neutrality.

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positive urine anion gap suggesting a kidney source of acid loss, and a negative urine anion gap is consistent with gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss.
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Flashcard 1634726186252

Question
positive urine anion gap suggesting a [...] of acid loss, and a negative urine anion gap is consistent with gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss.
Answer
kidney source

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positive urine anion gap suggesting a kidney source of acid loss, and a negative urine anion gap is consistent with gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss.

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Flashcard 1634727759116

Question
positive urine anion gap suggesting a kidney source of acid loss, and a negative urine anion gap is consistent with [...] bicarbonate loss.
Answer
gastrointestinal

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positive urine anion gap suggesting a kidney source of acid loss, and a negative urine anion gap is consistent with gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss.

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The vomiting associated with bulimia nervosa leads to loss of gastric acid with a resulting metabolic alkalosis
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Flashcard 1634730904844

Question
The vomiting associated with bulimia nervosa leads to loss of gastric acid with a resulting metabolic [...]
Answer
alkalosis

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The vomiting associated with bulimia nervosa leads to loss of gastric acid with a resulting metabolic alkalosis

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Active diuretic use leads to kidney potassium wasting and a metabolic alkalosis, as does Gitelman syndrome, a defect that mimics the clinical picture of thiazide diuretic use.
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Flashcard 1634734050572

Question
Active diuretic use leads to kidney potassium wasting and a metabolic [...], as does Gitelman syndrome, a defect that mimics the clinical picture of thiazide diuretic use.
Answer
alkalosis

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Active diuretic use leads to kidney potassium wasting and a metabolic alkalosis, as does Gitelman syndrome, a defect that mimics the clinical picture of thiazide diuretic use.

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Flashcard 1634735623436

Question
Active diuretic use leads to kidney potassium wasting and a metabolic alkalosis, as does [...] syndrome, a defect that mimics the clinical picture of thiazide diuretic use.
Answer
Gitelman

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Active diuretic use leads to kidney potassium wasting and a metabolic alkalosis, as does Gitelman syndrome, a defect that mimics the clinical picture of thiazide diuretic use.

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Flashcard 1634737458444

Question
Active diuretic use leads to kidney potassium wasting and a metabolic alkalosis, as does Gitelman syndrome, a defect that mimics the clinical picture of [...] diuretic use.
Answer
thiazide

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Active diuretic use leads to kidney potassium wasting and a metabolic alkalosis, as does Gitelman syndrome, a defect that mimics the clinical picture of thiazide diuretic use.

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Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) renal tubular acidosis is caused by a defect in hydrogen secretion by the distal tubule and is associated with a positive urine anion gap, a high urine potassium secretion, and hypokalemia.
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Flashcard 1634740604172

Question
Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) renal tubular acidosis is caused by a defect in [...] by the distal tubule and is associated with a positive urine anion gap, a high urine potassium secretion, and hypokalemia.
Answer
hydrogen secretion

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Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) renal tubular acidosis is caused by a defect in hydrogen secretion by the distal tubule and is associated with a positive urine anion gap, a high urine potassium secretion, and hypokalemia.

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Flashcard 1634742177036

Question
Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) renal tubular acidosis is caused by a defect in hydrogen secretion by the distal tubule and is associated with a [...] urine anion gap, a high urine potassium secretion, and hypokalemia.
Answer
positive

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Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) renal tubular acidosis is caused by a defect in hydrogen secretion by the distal tubule and is associated with a positive urine anion gap, a high urine potassium secretion, and hypokalemia.

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Flashcard 1634744274188

Question
Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) renal tubular acidosis is caused by a defect in hydrogen secretion by the distal tubule and is associated with a positive urine anion gap, a [...] urine potassium secretion, and hypokalemia.
Answer
high

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Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) renal tubular acidosis is caused by a defect in hydrogen secretion by the distal tubule and is associated with a positive urine anion gap, a high urine potassium secretion, and hypokalemia.

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Patients who receive kidney transplants are at increased risk of malignancy compared with the general population, and this risk is attributable, at least in part, to the effects of immunosuppressive medications.
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Flashcard 1634749254924

Question
Patients who receive kidney transplants are at increased risk of [...] compared with the general population, and this risk is attributable, at least in part, to the effects of immunosuppressive medications.
Answer
malignancy

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Patients who receive kidney transplants are at increased risk of malignancy compared with the general population, and this risk is attributable, at least in part, to the effects of immunosuppressive medications.

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Flashcard 1634751089932

Question
Patients who receive kidney transplants are at increased risk of malignancy compared with the general population, and this risk is attributable, at least in part, to the effects of [...] medications.
Answer
immunosuppressive

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Patients who receive kidney transplants are at increased risk of malignancy compared with the general population, and this risk is attributable, at least in part, to the effects of immunosuppressive medications.

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Kidney transplant patients are at particularly high risk for squamous cell carcinomas (SCC) of the skin
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Flashcard 1634755546380

Question
Kidney transplant patients are at particularly high risk for [...] of the skin
Answer
squamous cell carcinomas (SCC)

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Kidney transplant patients are at particularly high risk for squamous cell carcinomas (SCC) of the skin

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Flashcard 1634757381388

Question
Kidney transplant patients are at particularly high risk for squamous cell carcinomas (SCC) of the [...]
Answer
skin

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Kidney transplant patients are at particularly high risk for squamous cell carcinomas (SCC) of the skin

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SCC is more common than basal cell carcinoma and accounts for approximately 90% of skin cancers in organ recipients.
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Flashcard 1634760527116

Question
[...] is more common than basal cell carcinoma and accounts for approximately 90% of skin cancers in organ recipients.
Answer
SCC

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SCC is more common than basal cell carcinoma and accounts for approximately 90% of skin cancers in organ recipients.

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Flashcard 1634762624268

Question
SCC is more common than [...] and accounts for approximately 90% of skin cancers in organ recipients.
Answer
basal cell carcinoma

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SCC is more common than basal cell carcinoma and accounts for approximately 90% of skin cancers in organ recipients.

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Flashcard 1634764721420

Question
SCC is more common than basal cell carcinoma and accounts for approximately [...]% of skin cancers in organ recipients.
Answer
90

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SCC is more common than basal cell carcinoma and accounts for approximately 90% of skin cancers in organ recipients.

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patient's baseline estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is considered the strongest predictor of the development of acute kidney injury (AKI) in the perioperative period.
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Flashcard 1634769964300

Question
patient's baseline estimated [...] is considered the strongest predictor of the development of acute kidney injury (AKI) in the perioperative period.
Answer
glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)

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patient's baseline estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is considered the strongest predictor of the development of acute kidney injury (AKI) in the perioperative period.

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An elevated preoperative serum creatinine level and the presence of chronic kidney disease (CKD) are the strongest nonmodifiable predictors of the development of AKI after cardiac surgery.
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Flashcard 1634773372172

Question
An elevated preoperative serum [...] level and the presence of chronic kidney disease (CKD) are the strongest nonmodifiable predictors of the development of AKI after cardiac surgery.
Answer
creatinine

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An elevated preoperative serum creatinine level and the presence of chronic kidney disease (CKD) are the strongest nonmodifiable predictors of the development of AKI after cardiac surgery.

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Other nonmodifiable risk factors for post–cardiac surgery AKI include advanced age, female gender, reduced left ventricular function or the presence of heart failure, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, peripheral vascular disease, and COPD.
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Flashcard 1634776517900

Question
Other nonmodifiable risk factors for post–cardiac surgery AKI include
Answer
advanced age, female gender, reduced left ventricular function or the presence of heart failure, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, peripheral vascular disease, and COPD.

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Other nonmodifiable risk factors for post–cardiac surgery AKI include advanced age, female gender, reduced left ventricular function or the presence of heart failure, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, peripheral vascular disease, and COPD.

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Hypertension has not been shown to be a strong predictor for the development of AKI post–cardiac surgery.
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Flashcard 1634779925772

Question
Hypertension has [...] to be a strong predictor for the development of AKI post–cardiac surgery.
Answer
not been shown

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Hypertension has not been shown to be a strong predictor for the development of AKI post–cardiac surgery.

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Lisinopril and simvastatin have not been established as medications that increase the risk of AKI post–cardiac surgery.
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Flashcard 1634783071500

Question
Lisinopril and simvastatin have [...] established as medications that increase the risk of AKI post–cardiac surgery.
Answer
not been

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Lisinopril and simvastatin have not been established as medications that increase the risk of AKI post–cardiac surgery.

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Oncogenic osteomalacia is characterized by bone pain and hypophosphatemia with kidney phosphate wasting in the setting of low 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D and normal 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentrations
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Flashcard 1634786479372

Question
Oncogenic osteomalacia is characterized by bone pain and hypophosphatemia with kidney phosphate wasting in the setting of low [...] vitamin D and normal 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentrations
Answer
1,25-dihydroxy

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Oncogenic osteomalacia is characterized by bone pain and hypophosphatemia with kidney phosphate wasting in the setting of low 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D and normal 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentrations

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Flashcard 1634788052236

Question
Oncogenic osteomalacia is characterized by bone pain and hypophosphatemia with kidney phosphate wasting in the setting of low 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D and [...] 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentrations
Answer
normal

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Oncogenic osteomalacia is characterized by bone pain and hypophosphatemia with kidney phosphate wasting in the setting of low 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D and normal 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentrations

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Flashcard 1634789625100

Question
Oncogenic osteomalacia is characterized by bone pain and hypophosphatemia with kidney phosphate wasting in the setting of [...] 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D and normal 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentrations
Answer
low

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Oncogenic osteomalacia is characterized by bone pain and hypophosphatemia with kidney phosphate wasting in the setting of low 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D and normal 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentrations

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Nutritional vitamin D deficiency results in low serum calcium levels and low 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentration, and it does not cause kidney phosphate wasting
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Flashcard 1634793295116

Question
Nutritional vitamin D deficiency results in low serum calcium levels and [...] 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentration, and it does not cause kidney phosphate wasting
Answer
low

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Nutritional vitamin D deficiency results in low serum calcium levels and low 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentration, and it does not cause kidney phosphate wasting

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Flashcard 1634794867980

Question
Nutritional vitamin D deficiency results in low serum calcium levels and low 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentration, and it [...] kidney phosphate wasting
Answer
does not cause

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Nutritional vitamin D deficiency results in low serum calcium levels and low 25-hydroxy vitamin D concentration, and it does not cause kidney phosphate wasting

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Primary hyperparathyroidism is defined by an elevated parathyroid hormone level, elevated serum calcium level, and increased 1,25- dihydroxy vitamin D
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Flashcard 1634798013708

Question
Primary hyperparathyroidism is defined by an [...] parathyroid hormone level, elevated serum calcium level, and increased 1,25- dihydroxy vitamin D
Answer
elevated

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Primary hyperparathyroidism is defined by an elevated parathyroid hormone level, elevated serum calcium level, and increased 1,25- dihydroxy vitamin D

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Flashcard 1634799586572

Question
Primary hyperparathyroidism is defined by an elevated parathyroid hormone level, [...] serum calcium level, and increased 1,25- dihydroxy vitamin D
Answer
elevated

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Primary hyperparathyroidism is defined by an elevated parathyroid hormone level, elevated serum calcium level, and increased 1,25- dihydroxy vitamin D

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Flashcard 1634801159436

Question
Primary hyperparathyroidism is defined by an elevated parathyroid hormone level, elevated serum calcium level, and [...] 1,25- dihydroxy vitamin D
Answer
increased

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Primary hyperparathyroidism is defined by an elevated parathyroid hormone level, elevated serum calcium level, and increased 1,25- dihydroxy vitamin D

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The differential diagnosis of pulmonary-renal syndrome includes small-vessel vasculitis (ANCA associated), anti-GBM antibody disease (Goodpasture syndrome), and rarely, other autoimmune diseases such as cryoglobulinemic vasculitis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and IgA vasculitis.
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Flashcard 1634805353740

Question
The differential diagnosis of pulmonary-renal syndrome includes
Answer
small-vessel vasculitis (ANCA associated), anti-GBM antibody disease (Goodpasture syndrome), and rarely, other autoimmune diseases such as cryoglobulinemic vasculitis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and IgA vasculitis.

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The differential diagnosis of pulmonary-renal syndrome includes small-vessel vasculitis (ANCA associated), anti-GBM antibody disease (Goodpasture syndrome), and rarely, other autoimmune diseases such as cryoglobulinemic vasculitis, systemic lupu

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Serologies show normal complement levels and elevated levels of anti-GBM antibodies
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Flashcard 1634808499468

Question
what are the serology of anti GBM ?
Answer
Serologies show normal complement levels and elevated levels of anti-GBM antibodies

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Serologies show normal complement levels and elevated levels of anti-GBM antibodies

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kidney biopsy, there is a proliferative glomerulonephritis, often with many crescents (shown, top panel). There is linear deposition of immunoglobulin along the GBM by immunofluorescence, but no electron- dense deposits on electron microscopy
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Flashcard 1634812431628

Question
what is the result of kidney biopsy of anti GBM ?
Answer
there is a proliferative glomerulonephritis, often with many crescents (shown, top panel). There is linear deposition of immunoglobulin along the GBM by immunofluorescence, but no electron- dense deposits on electron microscopy

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kidney biopsy, there is a proliferative glomerulonephritis, often with many crescents (shown, top panel). There is linear deposition of immunoglobulin along the GBM by immunofluorescence, but no electron- dense deposits on electron microscopy

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Treatment is immunosuppressive therapy with cyclophosphamide and glucocorticoids, combined with daily plasmapheresis to remove circulating anti-GBM antibodies.
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Flashcard 1634816363788

Question
what is the treatment of anti GBM ?
Answer
Treatment is immunosuppressive therapy with cyclophosphamide and glucocorticoids, combined with daily plasmapheresis to remove circulating anti-GBM antibodies.

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Treatment is immunosuppressive therapy with cyclophosphamide and glucocorticoids, combined with daily plasmapheresis to remove circulating anti-GBM antibodies.

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Membranous nephropathy is associated with the nephrotic syndrome with a low serum albumin level, which is not seen in this patient. The nephrotic syndrome alone is not typically associated with pulmonary disease, although it can be complicated with venous thromboembolic manifestations such as pulmonary embolism
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Flashcard 1634820558092

Question
Membranous nephropathy is associated with the [...] with a low serum albumin level, which is not seen in this patient. The nephrotic syndrome alone is not typically associated with pulmonary disease, although it can be complicated with venous thromboembolic manifestations such as pulmonary embolism
Answer
nephrotic syndrome

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Membranous nephropathy is associated with the nephrotic syndrome with a low serum albumin level, which is not seen in this patient. The nephrotic syndrome alone is not typically associated with pulmonary disease, although it can be com

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Flashcard 1634822130956

Question
Membranous nephropathy is associated with the nephrotic syndrome with a [...] serum albumin level, which is not seen in this patient. The nephrotic syndrome alone is not typically associated with pulmonary disease, although it can be complicated with venous thromboembolic manifestations such as pulmonary embolism
Answer
low

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Membranous nephropathy is associated with the nephrotic syndrome with a low serum albumin level, which is not seen in this patient. The nephrotic syndrome alone is not typically associated with pulmonary disease, although it can be complicated wi

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Flashcard 1634823703820

Question
Membranous nephropathy is associated with the nephrotic syndrome with a low serum albumin level, which is not seen in this patient. The nephrotic syndrome alone is not typically associated with pulmonary disease, although it can be complicated with venous thromboembolic manifestations such as [...]
Answer
pulmonary embolism

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low serum albumin level, which is not seen in this patient. The nephrotic syndrome alone is not typically associated with pulmonary disease, although it can be complicated with venous thromboembolic manifestations such as <span>pulmonary embolism<span><body><html>

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Microscopic polyangiitis is the most common cause of pulmonary-renal syndrome
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Flashcard 1634827111692

Question
the most common cause of pulmonary-renal syndrome
Answer
Microscopic polyangiitis

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Microscopic polyangiitis is the most common cause of pulmonary-renal syndrome

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showing little or no immune deposits in microscopic polyangiitis (“pauci-immune glomerulonephritis”)
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Flashcard 1634830257420

Question
what is the result of kidney biopsy in microscopic polyangitis ?
Answer
showing little or no immune deposits in microscopic polyangiitis (“pauci-immune glomerulonephritis”)

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showing little or no immune deposits in microscopic polyangiitis (“pauci-immune glomerulonephritis”)

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Trimethoprim is known to interfere with creatinine secretion without affecting the glomerular filtration rate and can cause increases in serum creatinine of up to 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 µmol/L); this rise therefore does not reflect a drop in actual kidney function.
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Flashcard 1634834713868

Question
Trimethoprim is known to interfere with creatinine secretion without affecting the glomerular filtration rate and can cause increases in serum creatinine of up to [...] mg/dL (44.2 µmol/L); this rise therefore does not reflect a drop in actual kidney function.
Answer
0.5

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Trimethoprim is known to interfere with creatinine secretion without affecting the glomerular filtration rate and can cause increases in serum creatinine of up to 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 µmol/L); this rise therefore does not reflect a drop in actual kidney function.

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Trimethoprim also inhibits the epithelial sodium channel in the collecting tubule, effectively acting as a potassium-sparing diuretic and potentially increasing the serum potassium level
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Flashcard 1634837859596

Question
Trimethoprim also inhibits the epithelial sodium channel in the collecting tubule, effectively acting as a potassium-sparing diuretic and potentially [...] the serum potassium level
Answer
increasing

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Trimethoprim also inhibits the epithelial sodium channel in the collecting tubule, effectively acting as a potassium-sparing diuretic and potentially increasing the serum potassium level

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Rifampin may cause red or orange discoloration of the urine but is not associated with a decreased GFR, an increase in serum creatinine, or hyperkalemia
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Flashcard 1634841267468

Question
Rifampin may cause [...] discoloration of the urine but is not associated with a decreased GFR, an increase in serum creatinine, or hyperkalemia
Answer
red or orange

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Rifampin may cause red or orange discoloration of the urine but is not associated with a decreased GFR, an increase in serum creatinine, or hyperkalemia

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Urine eosinophil testing by means of special stains has been used classically to diagnose acute interstitial nephritis, which is a diagnostic consideration in a patient taking sulfa drugs.
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Flashcard 1634844675340

Question
Urine eosinophil testing by means of special stains has been used classically to diagnose acute [...], which is a diagnostic consideration in a patient taking sulfa drugs.
Answer
interstitial nephritis

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Urine eosinophil testing by means of special stains has been used classically to diagnose acute interstitial nephritis, which is a diagnostic consideration in a patient taking sulfa drugs.

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Flashcard 1634846248204

Question
Urine eosinophil testing by means of special stains has been used classically to diagnose acute interstitial nephritis, which is a diagnostic consideration in a patient taking [...] drugs.
Answer
sulfa

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Urine eosinophil testing by means of special stains has been used classically to diagnose acute interstitial nephritis, which is a diagnostic consideration in a patient taking sulfa drugs.

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Ultrasonography and noncontrast helical CT of the abdomen are testing options for evaluation of suspected nephrolithiasis; CT is indicated if initial ultrasound testing is negative in a patient with a high clinical suspicion for kidney stones.
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Flashcard 1634849393932

Question
Ultrasonography and noncontrast helical CT of the abdomen are testing options for evaluation of suspected nephrolithiasis; CT is indicated if initial ultrasound testing is [...] in a patient with a high clinical suspicion for kidney stones.
Answer
negative

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Ultrasonography and noncontrast helical CT of the abdomen are testing options for evaluation of suspected nephrolithiasis; CT is indicated if initial ultrasound testing is negative in a patient with a high clinical suspicion for kidney stones.

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the absence of hydronephrosis on ultrasound does not rule out nephrolithiasis
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Flashcard 1634852539660

Question
the absence of hydronephrosis on ultrasound does not rule out [...]
Answer
nephrolithiasis

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the absence of hydronephrosis on ultrasound does not rule out nephrolithiasis

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In patients with AKI and oliguria, the fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) may be helpful in differentiating between prerenal AKI and AKI from renal tubular cell damage or acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
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Flashcard 1634861976844

Question
In patients with AKI and oliguria, the [...] may be helpful in differentiating between prerenal AKI and AKI from renal tubular cell damage or acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
Answer
fractional excretion of sodium (FENa)

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In patients with AKI and oliguria, the fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) may be helpful in differentiating between prerenal AKI and AKI from renal tubular cell damage or acute tubular necrosis (ATN).

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FENa measures the percent of filtered sodium excreted in the urine and is calculated as (USodium × PCr)/(UCr× PSodium) × 100. It is considered a more accurate measurement of kidney sodium avidity in prerenal states than the urine sodium concentration
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Flashcard 1634865122572

Question
FENa measures the percent of filtered sodium excreted in the urine and is calculated as [...] It is considered a more accurate measurement of kidney sodium avidity in prerenal states than the urine sodium concentration
Answer
(USodium × PCr)/(UCr× PSodium) × 100.

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FENa measures the percent of filtered sodium excreted in the urine and is calculated as (USodium × PCr)/(UCr× PSodium) × 100. It is considered a more accurate measurement of kidney sodium avidity in prerenal states than the urine sodium concentration

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FENa is less reliable when diuretics are being used because the urine sodium may not accurately reflect attempts by the kidney to retain sodium
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Flashcard 1634868530444

Question
FENa is less reliable when [...] are being used because the urine sodium may not accurately reflect attempts by the kidney to retain sodium
Answer
diuretics

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FENa is less reliable when diuretics are being used because the urine sodium may not accurately reflect attempts by the kidney to retain sodium

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FENa is less reliable to differentiate between prerenal and ATN if the patient use diuretics , so better to use FEUrea which is not affected by diuretics
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Flashcard 1634871676172

Question
FEUrea is calculated as [...], with values <35% suggesting a prerenal state.
Answer
(UUrea × PCr)/(UCr × PUrea) × 100

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FEUrea is calculated as (UUrea × PCr)/(UCr × PUrea) × 100, with values <35% suggesting a prerenal state.

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Flashcard 1634873249036

Question
FEUrea is calculated as (UUrea × PCr)/(UCr × PUrea) × 100, with values [...] suggesting a prerenal state.
Answer
<35%

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FEUrea is calculated as (UUrea × PCr)/(UCr × PUrea) × 100, with values <35% suggesting a prerenal state.

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Flashcard 1634874821900

Question
FEUrea is calculated as (UUrea × PCr)/(UCr × PUrea) × 100, with values <35% suggesting a [...]
Answer
prerenal state.

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FEUrea is calculated as (UUrea × PCr)/(UCr × PUrea) × 100, with values <35% suggesting a prerenal state.

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Flashcard 1634877181196

Question
FENa is less reliable to differentiate between prerenal and ATN if the patient use [...] , so better to use FEUrea which is not affected by diuretics
Answer
diuretics

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FENa is less reliable to differentiate between prerenal and ATN if the patient use diuretics , so better to use FEUrea which is not affected by diuretics

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Flashcard 1634878754060

Question
FENa is less reliable to differentiate between prerenal and ATN if the patient use diuretics , so better to use [...] which is not affected by diuretics
Answer
FEUrea

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FENa is less reliable to differentiate between prerenal and ATN if the patient use diuretics , so better to use FEUrea which is not affected by diuretics

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Most patients with class III lupus nephritis and all patients with class IV lupus nephritis benefit from aggressive combination immunosuppressive therap
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Flashcard 1634882424076

Question
Most patients with class [...] lupus nephritis and all patients with class IV lupus nephritis benefit from aggressive combination immunosuppressive therap
Answer
III

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Most patients with class III lupus nephritis and all patients with class IV lupus nephritis benefit from aggressive combination immunosuppressive therap

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Flashcard 1634883996940

Question
Most patients with class III lupus nephritis and all patients with class [...] lupus nephritis benefit from aggressive combination immunosuppressive therap
Answer
IV

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Most patients with class III lupus nephritis and all patients with class IV lupus nephritis benefit from aggressive combination immunosuppressive therap

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Flashcard 1634885569804

Question
Most patients with class III lupus nephritis and all patients with class IV lupus nephritis benefit from aggressive [...] therap
Answer
combination immunosuppressive

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Most patients with class III lupus nephritis and all patients with class IV lupus nephritis benefit from aggressive combination immunosuppressive therap

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Patients with class I or II LN may have minimal or no kidney findings, and those with classes III and IV present with varying degrees of the nephritic syndrome. Patients with class V LN present predominantly with proteinuria. Class VI is the end stage of long-standing LN.
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Flashcard 1634889239820

Question
Patients with class I or II LN may have [...] kidney findings, and those with classes III and IV present with varying degrees of the nephritic syndrome. Patients with class V LN present predominantly with proteinuria. Class VI is the end stage of long-standing LN.
Answer
minimal or no

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Patients with class I or II LN may have minimal or no kidney findings, and those with classes III and IV present with varying degrees of the nephritic syndrome. Patients with class V LN present predominantly with prot

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Flashcard 1634890812684

Question
Patients with class I or II LN may have minimal or no kidney findings, and those with classes III and IV present with varying degrees of the [...] syndrome. Patients with class V LN present predominantly with proteinuria. Class VI is the end stage of long-standing LN.
Answer
nephritic

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Patients with class I or II LN may have minimal or no kidney findings, and those with classes III and IV present with varying degrees of the nephritic syndrome. Patients with class V LN present predominantly with proteinuria. Class VI is the end stage of long-standing LN.

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Flashcard 1634892385548

Question
Patients with class I or II LN may have minimal or no kidney findings, and those with classes III and IV present with varying degrees of the nephritic syndrome. Patients with class V LN present predominantly with [...]. Class VI is the end stage of long-standing LN.
Answer
proteinuria

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Patients with class I or II LN may have minimal or no kidney findings, and those with classes III and IV present with varying degrees of the nephritic syndrome. Patients with class V LN present predominantly with proteinuria. Class VI is the end stage of long-standing LN.<span><body><html>

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Class IV LN represents diffuse glomerular involvement and is the most common and severe form of nephritis associated with lupus. It is also associated with elevated anti–double stranded DNA antibody levels and hypocomplementemia, particularly during periods of active disease.
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Flashcard 1634895531276

Question
Class IV LN represents [...] involvement and is the most common and severe form of nephritis associated with lupus. It is also associated with elevated anti–double stranded DNA antibody levels and hypocomplementemia, particularly during periods of active disease.
Answer
diffuse glomerular

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Class IV LN represents diffuse glomerular involvement and is the most common and severe form of nephritis associated with lupus. It is also associated with elevated anti–double stranded DNA antibody lev

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Flashcard 1634897104140

Question
Class IV LN represents diffuse glomerular involvement and is the most common and severe form of nephritis associated with lupus. It is also associated with elevated [...], particularly during periods of active disease.
Answer
anti–double stranded DNA antibody levels and hypocomplementemia

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Class IV LN represents diffuse glomerular involvement and is the most common and severe form of nephritis associated with lupus. It is also associated with elevated anti–double stranded DNA antibody levels and hypocomplementemia, particularly during periods of active disease.

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The optimal initial therapy is to increase glucocorticoid doses (typically an intravenous pulse followed by a tapering oral dose), which is accompanied by either intravenous cyclophosphamide or mycophenolate mofetil
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Flashcard 1634900249868

Question
what is the treatment of flare of type III LN or type IV LN ?
Answer
The optimal initial therapy is to increase glucocorticoid doses (typically an intravenous pulse followed by a tapering oral dose), which is accompanied by either intravenous cyclophosphamide or mycophenolate mofetil

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The optimal initial therapy is to increase glucocorticoid doses (typically an intravenous pulse followed by a tapering oral dose), which is accompanied by either intravenous cyclophosphamide or mycophenolate mofetil

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The addition of plasmapheresis to immunosuppressive therapy has not been shown to improve outcomes in patients with LN.
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Flashcard 1634904444172

Question
The addition of plasmapheresis to immunosuppressive therapy has [...] shown to improve outcomes in patients with LN.
Answer
not been

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The addition of plasmapheresis to immunosuppressive therapy has not been shown to improve outcomes in patients with LN.

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treatment goal of <150/90 mm Hg for patients with hypertension who are ≥60 years
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Flashcard 1634907852044

Question
treatment goal of [...] mm Hg for patients with hypertension who are ≥60 years
Answer
<150/90

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treatment goal of <150/90 mm Hg for patients with hypertension who are ≥60 years

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Flashcard 1634909424908

Question
treatment goal of <150/90 mm Hg for patients with hypertension who are [...] years
Answer
≥60

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treatment goal of <150/90 mm Hg for patients with hypertension who are ≥60 years

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infection-related glomerulonephritis (IRGN) following a streptococcal infection. Supportive evidence includes preceding symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection suggestive of streptococci (rapid streptococcal antigen test is positive and antistreptolysin O antibodies are elevated), followed by the nephritic syndrome in 1 week, and low C3 levels with normal C4 levels (suggesting an alternative pathway of complement activation, which is typical of IRGN).
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Flashcard 1634912832780

Question
infection-related glomerulonephritis (IRGN) following a streptococcal infection. Supportive evidence includes preceding symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection suggestive of streptococci (rapid streptococcal antigen test is positive and antistreptolysin O antibodies are elevated), followed by the nephritic syndrome in 1 week, and [...] C3 levels with normal C4 levels (suggesting an alternative pathway of complement activation, which is typical of IRGN).
Answer
low

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ing symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection suggestive of streptococci (rapid streptococcal antigen test is positive and antistreptolysin O antibodies are elevated), followed by the nephritic syndrome in 1 week, and <span>low C3 levels with normal C4 levels (suggesting an alternative pathway of complement activation, which is typical of IRGN).<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634914405644

Question
infection-related glomerulonephritis (IRGN) following a streptococcal infection. Supportive evidence includes preceding symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection suggestive of streptococci (rapid streptococcal antigen test is positive and antistreptolysin O antibodies are elevated), followed by the nephritic syndrome in 1 week, and low C3 levels with [...] C4 levels (suggesting an alternative pathway of complement activation, which is typical of IRGN).
Answer
normal

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upper respiratory tract infection suggestive of streptococci (rapid streptococcal antigen test is positive and antistreptolysin O antibodies are elevated), followed by the nephritic syndrome in 1 week, and low C3 levels with <span>normal C4 levels (suggesting an alternative pathway of complement activation, which is typical of IRGN).<span><body><html>

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IgA nephropathy (IgAN) is the most common form of glomerulonephritis. Asymptomatic microscopic hematuria with or without proteinuria is the most common presentation of IgAN, and episodic gross hematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection is a classic presentation. Kidney manifestations usually occur concomitantly with the respiratory infection in IgAN (“synpharyngitic” nephritis), as opposed to the typical 7- to 10-day latent period with IRGN. Moreover, complement levels are typically normal in IgAN, whereas C3 is typically low and C4 is normal in IRGN
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Flashcard 1634917813516

Question
IgA nephropathy (IgAN) is the most common form of glomerulonephritis. Asymptomatic microscopic hematuria with or without proteinuria is the most common presentation of IgAN, and episodic gross hematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection is a classic presentation. Kidney manifestations usually occur concomitantly with the respiratory infection in IgAN (“synpharyngitic” nephritis), as opposed to the typical [...]-day latent period with IRGN. Moreover, complement levels are typically normal in IgAN, whereas C3 is typically low and C4 is normal in IRGN
Answer
7- to 10

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hematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection is a classic presentation. Kidney manifestations usually occur concomitantly with the respiratory infection in IgAN (“synpharyngitic” nephritis), as opposed to the typical <span>7- to 10-day latent period with IRGN. Moreover, complement levels are typically normal in IgAN, whereas C3 is typically low and C4 is normal in IRGN<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634919386380

Question
IgA nephropathy (IgAN) is the most common form of glomerulonephritis. Asymptomatic microscopic hematuria with or without proteinuria is the most common presentation of IgAN, and episodic gross hematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection is a classic presentation. Kidney manifestations usually occur concomitantly with the respiratory infection in IgAN (“synpharyngitic” nephritis), as opposed to the typical 7- to 10-day latent period with IRGN. Moreover, complement levels are typically [...] in IgAN, whereas C3 is typically low and C4 is normal in IRGN
Answer
normal

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presentation. Kidney manifestations usually occur concomitantly with the respiratory infection in IgAN (“synpharyngitic” nephritis), as opposed to the typical 7- to 10-day latent period with IRGN. Moreover, complement levels are typically <span>normal in IgAN, whereas C3 is typically low and C4 is normal in IRGN<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634920959244

Question
IgA nephropathy (IgAN) is the most common form of glomerulonephritis. Asymptomatic microscopic hematuria with or without proteinuria is the most common presentation of IgAN, and episodic gross hematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection is a classic presentation. Kidney manifestations usually occur concomitantly with the respiratory infection in IgAN (“synpharyngitic” nephritis), as opposed to the typical 7- to 10-day latent period with IRGN. Moreover, complement levels are typically normal in IgAN, whereas C3 is typically [...] and C4 is normal in IRGN
Answer
low

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ally occur concomitantly with the respiratory infection in IgAN (“synpharyngitic” nephritis), as opposed to the typical 7- to 10-day latent period with IRGN. Moreover, complement levels are typically normal in IgAN, whereas C3 is typically <span>low and C4 is normal in IRGN<span><body><html>

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Lupus nephritis may occasionally be precipitated by infections. Patients with lupus typically experience systemic manifestations such as rash and arthritis, although kidney-limited disease is sometimes seen. Both C3 and C4 complement levels are depressed in this condition due to the classical pathway of complement being activated.
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Flashcard 1634924891404

Question
Lupus nephritis may occasionally be precipitated by infections. Patients with lupus typically experience systemic manifestations such as rash and arthritis, although kidney-limited disease is sometimes seen. Both C3 and C4 complement levels are [...] in this condition due to the classical pathway of complement being activated.
Answer
depressed

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nephritis may occasionally be precipitated by infections. Patients with lupus typically experience systemic manifestations such as rash and arthritis, although kidney-limited disease is sometimes seen. Both C3 and C4 complement levels are <span>depressed in this condition due to the classical pathway of complement being activated. <span><body><html>

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Small-vessel vasculitis is also associated with glomerulonephritis. However, there are frequently other clinical findings of vasculitis present, and complement levels are typically normal.
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Flashcard 1634928037132

Question
Small-vessel vasculitis is also associated with glomerulonephritis. However, there are frequently other clinical findings of vasculitis present, and complement levels are typically [...].
Answer
normal

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Small-vessel vasculitis is also associated with glomerulonephritis. However, there are frequently other clinical findings of vasculitis present, and complement levels are typically normal.

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Orlistat may be a cause of acute kidney injury by triggering acute oxalate nephropathy, particularly in patients with volume depletion or chronic kidney disease
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Flashcard 1634931707148

Question
Orlistat may be a cause of acute kidney injury by triggering acute [...] nephropathy, particularly in patients with volume depletion or chronic kidney disease
Answer
oxalate

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Orlistat may be a cause of acute kidney injury by triggering acute oxalate nephropathy, particularly in patients with volume depletion or chronic kidney disease

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Flashcard 1634933280012

Question
Orlistat may be a cause of acute kidney injury by triggering acute oxalate nephropathy, particularly in patients with [...]
Answer
volume depletion or chronic kidney disease

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Orlistat may be a cause of acute kidney injury by triggering acute oxalate nephropathy, particularly in patients with volume depletion or chronic kidney disease

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The clinical presentation of MG is indistinguishable from other causes of the nephrotic syndrome, although the propensity for venous thromboembolism, and particularly renal vein thrombosis, is much higher in MG than other disorders associated with the nephrotic syndrome, such as focal segmental glomerulosclerosis or minimal change glomerulopathy
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Flashcard 1634938260748

Question
The clinical presentation of MG is indistinguishable from other causes of the nephrotic syndrome, although the propensity for venous thromboembolism, and particularly [...], is much higher in MG than other disorders associated with the nephrotic syndrome, such as focal segmental glomerulosclerosis or minimal change glomerulopathy
Answer
renal vein thrombosis

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The clinical presentation of MG is indistinguishable from other causes of the nephrotic syndrome, although the propensity for venous thromboembolism, and particularly renal vein thrombosis, is much higher in MG than other disorders associated with the nephrotic syndrome, such as focal segmental glomerulosclerosis or minimal change glomerulopathy</ht

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prophylactic anticoagulation is frequently given to patients with MG with a serum albumin level of ≤2.8 g/dL (28 g/L)
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Flashcard 1634941930764

Question
prophylactic anticoagulation is frequently given to patients with MG with a serum albumin level of ≤[...]
Answer
2.8 g/dL (28 g/L)

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prophylactic anticoagulation is frequently given to patients with MG with a serum albumin level of ≤2.8 g/dL (28 g/L)

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MG is the most common cause of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in adult white persons but may also be associated with infections, systemic lupus erythematosus, medications, and certain malignancies.
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Flashcard 1634945076492

Question
MG is the most common cause of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in adult white persons but may also be associated with [...]
Answer
infections, systemic lupus erythematosus, medications, and certain malignancies.

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MG is the most common cause of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in adult white persons but may also be associated with infections, systemic lupus erythematosus, medications, and certain malignancies.

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The diagnosis of white coat hypertension is applied to patients with average blood pressure readings ≥140/90 mm Hg in the office and average readings <135/85 mm Hg as determined by ABPM
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Flashcard 1634948746508

Question
The diagnosis of white coat hypertension is applied to patients with average blood pressure readings [...] mm Hg in the office and average readings <135/85 mm Hg as determined by ABPM
Answer
≥140/90

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The diagnosis of white coat hypertension is applied to patients with average blood pressure readings ≥140/90 mm Hg in the office and average readings <135/85 mm Hg as determined by ABPM

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Flashcard 1634950319372

Question
The diagnosis of white coat hypertension is applied to patients with average blood pressure readings ≥140/90 mm Hg in the office and average readings [...] mm Hg as determined by ABPM
Answer
<135/85

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The diagnosis of white coat hypertension is applied to patients with average blood pressure readings ≥140/90 mm Hg in the office and average readings <135/85 mm Hg as determined by ABPM

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Two anti-vascular endothelial growth factor inhibitors, bevacizumab and sunitinib, have been linked to thrombotic microangiopathy, which typically subsides after stopping the drug.
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Flashcard 1634953727244

Question
Two anti-vascular endothelial growth factor inhibitors, [...], have been linked to thrombotic microangiopathy, which typically subsides after stopping the drug.
Answer
bevacizumab and sunitinib

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Two anti-vascular endothelial growth factor inhibitors, bevacizumab and sunitinib, have been linked to thrombotic microangiopathy, which typically subsides after stopping the drug.

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All patients with stage G4 or G5 chronic kidney disease should be referred to a nephrologist for management, and referral for transplant evaluation is indicated once the estimated glomerular filtration rate is below 20 mL/min/1.73 m 2 .
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Flashcard 1634957135116

Question
All patients with stage G4 or G5 chronic kidney disease should be referred to a nephrologist for management, and referral for transplant evaluation is indicated once the estimated glomerular filtration rate is below [...] mL/min/1.73 m 2 .
Answer
20

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/head>All patients with stage G4 or G5 chronic kidney disease should be referred to a nephrologist for management, and referral for transplant evaluation is indicated once the estimated glomerular filtration rate is below 20 mL/min/1.73 m 2 .<html>

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Abdominal compartment syndrome should be suspected in patients with oliguria or increasing serum creatinine levels who have had abdominal surgery, who have received massive fluid resuscitation, who have a tense abdomen, or who have liver or pancreatic disease with ascites.
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Flashcard 1634961067276

Question
Abdominal compartment syndrome should be suspected in patients with oliguria or increasing serum creatinine levels who have had [...], who have received massive fluid resuscitation, who have a tense abdomen, or who have liver or pancreatic disease with ascites.
Answer
abdominal surgery

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Abdominal compartment syndrome should be suspected in patients with oliguria or increasing serum creatinine levels who have had abdominal surgery, who have received massive fluid resuscitation, who have a tense abdomen, or who have liver or pancreatic disease with ascites.

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Flashcard 1634962640140

Question
Abdominal compartment syndrome should be suspected in patients with oliguria or increasing serum creatinine levels who have had abdominal surgery, who have received massive [...], who have a tense abdomen, or who have liver or pancreatic disease with ascites.
Answer
fluid resuscitation

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Abdominal compartment syndrome should be suspected in patients with oliguria or increasing serum creatinine levels who have had abdominal surgery, who have received massive fluid resuscitation, who have a tense abdomen, or who have liver or pancreatic disease with ascites.

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Flashcard 1634964213004

Question
Abdominal compartment syndrome should be suspected in patients with oliguria or increasing serum creatinine levels who have had abdominal surgery, who have received massive fluid resuscitation, who have a [...] abdomen, or who have liver or pancreatic disease with ascites.
Answer
tense

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html>Abdominal compartment syndrome should be suspected in patients with oliguria or increasing serum creatinine levels who have had abdominal surgery, who have received massive fluid resuscitation, who have a tense abdomen, or who have liver or pancreatic disease with ascites. <html>

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Flashcard 1634966048012

Question
Abdominal compartment syndrome should be suspected in patients with oliguria or increasing serum creatinine levels who have had abdominal surgery, who have received massive fluid resuscitation, who have a tense abdomen, or who have [...]
Answer
liver or pancreatic disease with ascites.

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n>Abdominal compartment syndrome should be suspected in patients with oliguria or increasing serum creatinine levels who have had abdominal surgery, who have received massive fluid resuscitation, who have a tense abdomen, or who have liver or pancreatic disease with ascites. <span><body><html>

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ACS is typically defined as new organ dysfunction with an intra-abdominal pressure >20 mm Hg
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Flashcard 1634969718028

Question
ACS is typically defined as new organ dysfunction with an intra-abdominal pressure [...] mm Hg
Answer
>20

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ACS is typically defined as new organ dysfunction with an intra-abdominal pressure >20 mm Hg

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Diagnosis of intra-abdominal hypertension and ACS is accomplished by transduction of bladder pressure. Although medical treatment (diuresis, dialysis, management of ascites) can be tried, surgical decompression of the abdomen is often necessary to definitively treat ACS
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Flashcard 1634973125900

Question
Diagnosis of intra-abdominal hypertension and ACS is accomplished by [...]. Although medical treatment (diuresis, dialysis, management of ascites) can be tried, surgical decompression of the abdomen is often necessary to definitively treat ACS
Answer
transduction of bladder pressure

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Diagnosis of intra-abdominal hypertension and ACS is accomplished by transduction of bladder pressure. Although medical treatment (diuresis, dialysis, management of ascites) can be tried, surgical decompression of the abdomen is often necessary to definitively treat ACS

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Flashcard 1634974698764

Question
Diagnosis of intra-abdominal hypertension and ACS is accomplished by transduction of bladder pressure. Although medical treatment (diuresis, dialysis, management of ascites) can be tried, surgical [...] is often necessary to definitively treat ACS
Answer
decompression of the abdomen

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head><head>Diagnosis of intra-abdominal hypertension and ACS is accomplished by transduction of bladder pressure. Although medical treatment (diuresis, dialysis, management of ascites) can be tried, surgical decompression of the abdomen is often necessary to definitively treat ACS<html>

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Risk factors for the development of statin-induced rhabdomyolysis include advanced age, female gender, preexisting chronic kidney disease, diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, high-dose statin therapy, and use of medications metabolized through cytochrome P450 3A4.
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Flashcard 1634978106636

Question
Risk factors for the development of statin-induced rhabdomyolysis include
Answer
advanced age, female gender, preexisting chronic kidney disease, diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, high-dose statin therapy, and use of medications metabolized through cytochrome P450 3A4.

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Risk factors for the development of statin-induced rhabdomyolysis include advanced age, female gender, preexisting chronic kidney disease, diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, high-dose statin therapy, and use of medications metabolized through cytochrome P450 3A4.

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Acquired cystic kidney disease is associated with a large number of small bilateral kidney cysts, reduced kidney size, and a markedly increased risk for developing renal cell carcinoma.
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Flashcard 1634981514508

Question
Acquired cystic kidney disease is associated with a large number of small bilateral kidney cysts, reduced kidney size, and a markedly increased risk for developing [...]
Answer
renal cell carcinoma.

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Acquired cystic kidney disease is associated with a large number of small bilateral kidney cysts, reduced kidney size, and a markedly increased risk for developing renal cell carcinoma.

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The hallmark of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is large kidneys with multiple kidney cysts, usually originating in the renal collecting duct.
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Flashcard 1634984660236

Question
The hallmark of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is [...] kidneys with multiple kidney cysts, usually originating in the renal collecting duct.
Answer
large

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The hallmark of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is large kidneys with multiple kidney cysts, usually originating in the renal collecting duct.

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Flashcard 1634986233100

Question
The hallmark of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is large kidneys with multiple kidney cysts, usually originating in the renal [...]
Answer
collecting duct.

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The hallmark of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is large kidneys with multiple kidney cysts, usually originating in the renal collecting duct.

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Renal angiomyolipomas and bilateral renal cysts are associated with tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC). However, because this is an autosomal dominant disease, there is almost always a positive family history
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Flashcard 1634989378828

Question
Renal angiomyolipomas and bilateral renal cysts are associated with [...] complex (TSC). However, because this is an autosomal dominant disease, there is almost always a positive family history
Answer
tuberous sclerosis

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Renal angiomyolipomas and bilateral renal cysts are associated with tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC). However, because this is an autosomal dominant disease, there is almost always a positive family history

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Flashcard 1634990951692

Question
Renal angiomyolipomas and bilateral renal cysts are associated with tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC). However, because this is an autosomal [...] disease, there is almost always a positive family history
Answer
dominant

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Renal angiomyolipomas and bilateral renal cysts are associated with tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC). However, because this is an autosomal dominant disease, there is almost always a positive family history

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