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Flashcard 1447524961548

Tags
#7-important-definitions #language-and-reality #sister-miriam-joseph #trivium
Question
Because it is a spiritual individual, the intellect can [...] directly and reflexively.
Answer
know itself

(See Saint Thomas Aquinas, Summa Theologica, Part I, Question 86, Articles 1 and 3.)


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Because it is a spiritual individual, the intellect can know itself directly and reflexively. (See Saint Thomas Aquinas, Summa Theologica, Part I, Question 86, Articles 1 and 3.)

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Flashcard 1451354885388

Tags
#cfa #cfa-level-1 #economics #reading-15-demand-and-supply-analysis-the-firm #section-3-analysis-of-revenue-costs-and-profit
Question



In the short run, if total revenue cannot cover total variable cost, the firm shuts down production to minimize loss, which would equal [...]

Answer
the amount of fixed cost.


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The firm must cover variable cost before fixed cost. In the short run, if total revenue cannot cover total variable cost, the firm shuts down production to minimize loss, which would equal the amount of fixed cost. If total variable cost exceeds total revenue in the long run, the firm will exit the market as a business entity to avoid the loss associated with fixed cost at zero producti







Flashcard 1626110823692

Question
What tribe and clan are Jarir from?
Answer
Tribe (qabīla): Tamīm
Group (don't know Arabic word, or if it is technical): Yarbūʿ
Clan (ʿashīra): Kulayb


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Flashcard 1633194216716

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
With which formula do you annualize the HPY of a T-Bill on a 365 basis
Answer
The effective annual yield


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Subject 4. Different Yield Measures of a U.S. Treasury Bill
#13; Since a pure discount instrument (e.g., a T-bill) makes no interest payment, its HPY is (P 1 - P 0 )/P 0 . Note that HPY is computed on the basis of purchase price, not face value. It is not an annualized yield. <span>The effective annual yield is the annualized HPY on the basis of a 365-day year. It incorporates the effect of compounding interest. Money market yield (also known as CD equivalent yield) is the annualized HPY on the basis of







α-blocker doxazosin may be considered for its dual blood pressure–lowering effect and its effect on urinary frequency, its use as first-line therapy for persistent hypertension following lifestyle modification should be decided while considering its adverse effect profile (such as orthostatic hypotension) and its increased incidence of heart failure

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Flashcard 1634320649484

Question
α-blocker doxazosin may be considered for its dual blood pressure–lowering effect and its effect on urinary frequency, its use as first-line therapy for persistent hypertension following lifestyle modification should be decided while considering its adverse effect profile [...]
Answer
(such as orthostatic hypotension) and its increased incidence of heart failure


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al blood pressure–lowering effect and its effect on urinary frequency, its use as first-line therapy for persistent hypertension following lifestyle modification should be decided while considering its adverse effect profile <span>(such as orthostatic hypotension) and its increased incidence of heart failure<span><body><html>

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thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide, which increases serum urate

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Flashcard 1634323795212

Question
WHAT IS THE SIDE EFFECT OF HYDROCHLOROTHIAZIDE IN GOUT ?
Answer
increases serum urate


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thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide, which increases serum urate

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The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN

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Flashcard 1634327989516

Question
The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is [...] most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN
Answer
an immune complex–mediated disease


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The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in

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Flashcard 1634329562380

Question
The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with [...] infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN
Answer
nonstreptococcal


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nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with <span>nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and activate complement

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Flashcard 1634331135244

Question
The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and [...]
Answer
activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN


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complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and <span>activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN<span><body><html>

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Drug-induced tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild proteinuria, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and leukocyte casts on urinalysis. Eosinophiluria, recurrence of fevers, rash, and peripheral eosinophilia may also be seen

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Flashcard 1634334280972

Question
Drug-induced tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after [...] days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild proteinuria, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and leukocyte casts on urinalysis. Eosinophiluria, recurrence of fevers, rash, and peripheral eosinophilia may also be seen
Answer
7 to 10


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Drug-induced tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild proteinuria, erythrocytes, leuk

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Flashcard 1634335853836

Question
Drug-induced tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild [...]
Answer
proteinuria, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and leukocyte casts on urinalysis. Eosinophiluria, recurrence of fevers, rash, and peripheral eosinophilia may also be seen


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d tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild <span>proteinuria, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and leukocyte casts on urinalysis. Eosinophiluria, recurrence of fevers, rash, and peripheral eosinophilia may also be seen<span><body><html>

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isolated hematuria with a family history of hematuria may require serial measurements of kidney function and urine protein because kidney failure may occur later in life.

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Flashcard 1634346863884

Question
isolated hematuria with a family history of hematuria may require serial measurements of [...] because kidney failure may occur later in life.
Answer
kidney function and urine protein


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isolated hematuria with a family history of hematuria may require serial measurements of kidney function and urine protein because kidney failure may occur later in life.

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familial hematuric syndrome, which is typically associated with either X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of blood pressure, kidney function, and urine protein are reasonable

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Flashcard 1634350009612

Question
familial hematuric syndrome, which is typically associated with either [...]. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of blood pressure, kidney function, and urine protein are reasonable
Answer
X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen


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familial hematuric syndrome, which is typically associated with either X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of blood pressure, kidney function, and urin

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Flashcard 1634351582476

Question
familial hematuric syndrome, which is typically associated with either X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of [...] are reasonable
Answer
blood pressure, kidney function, and urine protein


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drome, which is typically associated with either X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of <span>blood pressure, kidney function, and urine protein are reasonable<span><body><html>

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Blood pressure averages ≥135/85 mm Hg by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home monitoring meet most consensus panels' definition of hypertension and should be treated with pharmacologic therapy

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Flashcard 1634354728204

Question
Blood pressure averages [...] mm Hg by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home monitoring meet most consensus panels' definition of hypertension and should be treated with pharmacologic therapy
Answer
≥135/85


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Blood pressure averages ≥135/85 mm Hg by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home monitoring meet most consensus panels' definition of hypertension and should be treated with pharmacologic therapy<

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nighttime hypertension is defined by average values >125/75 mm Hg

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Flashcard 1634358136076

Question
nighttime hypertension is defined by average values [...] mm Hg
Answer
>125/75


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nighttime hypertension is defined by average values >125/75 mm Hg

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the typical blood pressure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least 10% (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), and a more rapid rate of decline in glomerular filtration rate

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Flashcard 1634360757516

Question
the typical blood pressure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least [...] (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), and a more rapid rate of decline in glomerular filtration rate
Answer
10%


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head><head> the typical blood pressure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least 10% (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), a

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Flashcard 1634362330380

Question
the typical blood pressure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least 10% (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with [...]
Answer
left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), and a more rapid rate of decline in glomerular filtration rate


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ure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least 10% (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with <span>left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), and a more rapid rate of decline in glomerular filtration rate<span><body><html>

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Management of uric acid nephrolithiasis includes adequate urine output, urine alkalinization, and xanthine oxidase inhibitors if needed to decrease uric acid production.

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Flashcard 1634366000396

Question
What is the management of uric acid nehrolithiasis ?
Answer
adequate urine output, urine alkalinization, and xanthine oxidase inhibitors if needed to decrease uric acid production.


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Management of uric acid nephrolithiasis includes adequate urine output, urine alkalinization, and xanthine oxidase inhibitors if needed to decrease uric acid production.

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low urine pH, markedly increase the risk of uric acid stones by favoring the development of insoluble uric acid from the relatively soluble urate salt.

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Flashcard 1634369932556

Question
[...], markedly increase the risk of uric acid stones by favoring the development of insoluble uric acid from the relatively soluble urate salt.
Answer
low urine pH


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low urine pH, markedly increase the risk of uric acid stones by favoring the development of insoluble uric acid from the relatively soluble urate salt.

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Oral hydration to maintain a urine output of at least 2 L/d is the mainstay of therapy. If this is inadequate, the next treatment is urine alkalinization (usually with potassium citrate or potassium bicarbonate) to increase the solubility of uric acid.

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Flashcard 1634373078284

Question
management of uric acid nephrolithiasis ?
Answer
Oral hydration to maintain a urine output of at least 2 L/d is the mainstay of therapy. If this is inadequate, the next treatment is urine alkalinization (usually with potassium citrate or potassium bicarbonate) to increase the solubility of uric acid.


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Oral hydration to maintain a urine output of at least 2 L/d is the mainstay of therapy. If this is inadequate, the next treatment is urine alkalinization (usually with potassium citrate or potassium bicarbonate) to increase the solubility of uric acid.

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Cholestyramine binds bile salts and oxalate in the gut and is sometimes used as a treatment for kidney stones related to hyperoxaluria but would likely not benefit this patient with uric acid stones.

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Flashcard 1634377010444

Question
Cholestyramine binds bile salts and oxalate in the gut and is sometimes used as a treatment for kidney stones related to [...] but would likely not benefit this patient with uric acid stones.
Answer
hyperoxaluria


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Cholestyramine binds bile salts and oxalate in the gut and is sometimes used as a treatment for kidney stones related to hyperoxaluria but would likely not benefit this patient with uric acid stones.

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Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney. However, this is a strategy for treating calcium-based nephrolithiasis and is not effective for uric acid stones.

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Flashcard 1634380156172

Question
Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by [...] However, this is a strategy for treating calcium-based nephrolithiasis and is not effective for uric acid stones.
Answer
increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney.


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Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney. However, this is a strategy for treating calcium-based nephrolithiasis and is not effective for uric acid stones.

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Flashcard 1634381729036

Question
Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney. However, this is a strategy for treating [...] and is not effective for uric acid stones.
Answer
calcium-based nephrolithiasis


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><head>Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney. However, this is a strategy for treating calcium-based nephrolithiasis and is not effective for uric acid stones.<html>

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chronic kidney disease stage 4 and greater (glomerular filtration rate <30 mL/min/1.73 m 2 ), thiazide diuretics lose potency, and loop diuretics may often be required.

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Flashcard 1634384874764

Question
chronic kidney disease stage 4 and greater (glomerular filtration rate <30 mL/min/1.73 m 2 ), thiazide diuretics lose potency, and [...] may often be required.
Answer
loop diuretics


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chronic kidney disease stage 4 and greater (glomerular filtration rate <30 mL/min/1.73 m 2 ), thiazide diuretics lose potency, and loop diuretics may often be required.

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The centrally acting agent clonidine and the vasodilator minoxidil are potent antihypertensives sometimes used in cases of resistant hypertension if maximal doses of more conventional agents are unsuccessful. However, this patient is not currently on optimal triple therapy, and both agents also increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension in those with autonomic neuropathy, such as this patient. Moreover, the use of minoxidil without adequate diuresis will worsen salt and water retention and should be avoided.

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Flashcard 1634388282636

Question
The centrally acting agent clonidine and the vasodilator minoxidil are potent antihypertensives sometimes used in cases of resistant hypertension if maximal doses of more conventional agents are unsuccessful. However, this patient is not currently on optimal triple therapy, and both agents also increase the risk of [...] in those with autonomic neuropathy, such as this patient. Moreover, the use of minoxidil without adequate diuresis will worsen salt and water retention and should be avoided.
Answer
orthostatic hypotension


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etimes used in cases of resistant hypertension if maximal doses of more conventional agents are unsuccessful. However, this patient is not currently on optimal triple therapy, and both agents also increase the risk of <span>orthostatic hypotension in those with autonomic neuropathy, such as this patient. Moreover, the use of minoxidil without adequate diuresis will worsen salt and water retention and should be avoided

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Combination therapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure ≥100 mm Hg

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Flashcard 1634391428364

Question
Combination therapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure [...] mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure ≥100 mm Hg
Answer
≥160


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l>Combination therapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure ≥100 mm Hg<html>

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Flashcard 1634393001228

Question
Combination therapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure [...] mm Hg
Answer
≥100


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herapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure <span>≥100 mm Hg<span><body><html>

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Diagnose white coat hypertension using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

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Flashcard 1634396146956

Question
Diagnose white coat hypertension using [...]
Answer
ambulatory blood pressure monitoring


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Diagnose white coat hypertension using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

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White coat hypertension is defined as blood pressure readings in the office ≥140/90 mm Hg and out-of-office readings that average <135/85 mm Hg.

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Flashcard 1634399292684

Question
White coat hypertension is
Answer
blood pressure readings in the office ≥140/90 mm Hg and out-of-office readings that average <135/85 mm Hg.


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White coat hypertension is defined as blood pressure readings in the office ≥140/90 mm Hg and out-of-office readings that average <135/85 mm Hg.

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Urine testing for fractionated metanephrines is used to evaluate for pheochromocytoma as a secondary cause of hypertension.

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Flashcard 1634402438412

Question
Urine testing for fractionated metanephrines is used to evaluate for [...] as a secondary cause of hypertension.
Answer
pheochromocytoma


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Urine testing for fractionated metanephrines is used to evaluate for pheochromocytoma as a secondary cause of hypertension.

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Pheochromocytoma is generally suspected in patients with the symptom triad of episodic headache, sweating, and tachycardia associated with coincident increases in blood pressure

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Flashcard 1634405584140

Question
Pheochromocytoma
Answer
triad of episodic headache, sweating, and tachycardia associated with coincident increases in blood pressure


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Pheochromocytoma is generally suspected in patients with the symptom triad of episodic headache, sweating, and tachycardia associated with coincident increases in blood pressure

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Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy

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Flashcard 1634408729868

Question
Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as [...] in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy
Answer
nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts


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Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy

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Flashcard 1634410302732

Question
Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium [...], and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy
Answer
>1%


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Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy

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Flashcard 1634411875596

Question
Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises [...] days after starting therapy
Answer
5 to 10


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an>Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises <span>5 to 10 days after starting therapy<span><body><html>

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Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia can also occur with aminoglycoside toxicity due to kidney potassium and magnesium wasting.

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Flashcard 1634415021324

Question
[...] can also occur with aminoglycoside toxicity due to kidney potassium and magnesium wasting.
Answer
Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia


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Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia can also occur with aminoglycoside toxicity due to kidney potassium and magnesium wasting.

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Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.

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Flashcard 1634418167052

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute [...] Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
interstitial nephritis.


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Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after d

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Flashcard 1634419739916

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and [...] casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
leukocyte


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Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, t

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Flashcard 1634421312780

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral [...], and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
eosinophilia


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Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure. </s

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Flashcard 1634422885644

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and [...] can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
eosinophiluria


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/head>Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure. </ht

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Flashcard 1634424458508

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from [...] days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
3 to 5


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acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from <span>3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure. <span><body><html>

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Cholesterol embolism occurs in patients with atherosclerotic disease after undergoing an invasive vascular procedure or receiving an anticoagulant or thrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.

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Flashcard 1634427604236

Question
Cholesterol embolism occurs in patients with atherosclerotic disease after undergoing an invasive vascular procedure or receiving an anticoagulant or thrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash [...] AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.
Answer
(livedo reticularis),


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hrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash <span>(livedo reticularis), AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634429177100

Question
Cholesterol embolism occurs in patients with atherosclerotic disease after undergoing an invasive vascular procedure or receiving an anticoagulant or thrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, [...] discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.
Answer
purple


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the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, <span>purple discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634430749964

Question
Cholesterol embolism occurs in patients with atherosclerotic disease after undergoing an invasive vascular procedure or receiving an anticoagulant or thrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, [...]
Answer
bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.


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i from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, <span>bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.<span><body><html>

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Iodinated contrast can induce vasospasm and cause ischemic injury or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast

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Flashcard 1634433895692

Question
Iodinated contrast can induce [...] and cause ischemic injury or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast
Answer
vasospasm


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Iodinated contrast can induce vasospasm and cause ischemic injury or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast

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Flashcard 1634435468556

Question
Iodinated contrast can induce vasospasm and cause [...] or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast
Answer
ischemic injury


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Iodinated contrast can induce vasospasm and cause ischemic injury or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast

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Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as either an increase in serum creatinine of 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 µmol/L) or an increase in serum creatinine of 25% from baseline at 48 hours after contrast administration.

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Flashcard 1634438614284

Question
Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as
Answer
either an increase in serum creatinine of 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 µmol/L) or an increase in serum creatinine of 25% from baseline at 48 hours after contrast administration.


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Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as either an increase in serum creatinine of 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 µmol/L) or an increase in serum creatinine of 25% from baseline at 48 hours after contrast administration.

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Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to new-onset diabetes after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, tacrolimus, and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors sirolimus and everolimus.

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Flashcard 1634442022156

Question
Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to [...] after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, tacrolimus, and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors sirolimus and everolimus.
Answer
new-onset diabetes


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Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to new-onset diabetes after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, tacrolimus, and the mammalian target of rapamyci

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Flashcard 1634443595020

Question
Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to new-onset diabetes after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, [...], and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors sirolimus and everolimus.
Answer
tacrolimus


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Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to new-onset diabetes after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, tacrolimus, and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors sirolimus and everolimus.

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Dyslipidemia is also a common complication posttransplantation, and commonly used immunosuppressive medications that promote dyslipidemia include cyclosporine and mTOR inhibitors.

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Flashcard 1634446740748

Question
Dyslipidemia is also a common complication posttransplantation, and commonly used immunosuppressive medications that promote dyslipidemia include [...] and mTOR inhibitors.
Answer
cyclosporine


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Dyslipidemia is also a common complication posttransplantation, and commonly used immunosuppressive medications that promote dyslipidemia include cyclosporine and mTOR inhibitors.

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cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death among kidney transplant recipients

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Flashcard 1634449886476

Question
the leading cause of death among kidney transplant recipients
Answer
cardiovascular disease


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cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death among kidney transplant recipients

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Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; hypercalcemia is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but hypocalcemia is uncommon.

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Flashcard 1634453032204

Question
Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; [...] is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but hypocalcemia is uncommon.
Answer
hypercalcemia


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Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; hypercalcemia is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but hypocalcemia is uncommon.

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Flashcard 1634454605068

Question
Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; hypercalcemia is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but [...] is uncommon.
Answer
hypocalcemia


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Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; hypercalcemia is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but hypocalcemia is uncommon.

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Mechanical stone removal is appropriate for patients with large (>10 mm) kidney stones or those with smaller stones who have failed medical management or have complicated nephrolithiasis (urosepsis, acute kidney injury, anuria, refractory pain).

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Flashcard 1634457750796

Question
Mechanical stone removal is appropriate for patients with large [...] kidney stones or those with smaller stones who have failed medical management or have complicated nephrolithiasis (urosepsis, acute kidney injury, anuria, refractory pain).
Answer
(>10 mm)


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Mechanical stone removal is appropriate for patients with large (>10 mm) kidney stones or those with smaller stones who have failed medical management or have complicated nephrolithiasis (urosepsis, acute kidney injury, anuria, refractory pain). </

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Uncomplicated kidney stones <10 mm in size may usually be treated with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker (such as tamsulosin) or calcium channel blocker (such as nifedipine).

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Flashcard 1634461158668

Question
Uncomplicated kidney stones <10 mm in size may usually be treated with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker [...] or calcium channel blocker (such as nifedipine).
Answer
(such as tamsulosin)


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ney stones <10 mm in size may usually be treated with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker <span>(such as tamsulosin) or calcium channel blocker (such as nifedipine). <span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634462731532

Question
Uncomplicated kidney stones <10 mm in size may usually be treated with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker (such as tamsulosin) or calcium channel blocker [...]
Answer
(such as nifedipine).


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ed with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker (such as tamsulosin) or calcium channel blocker <span>(such as nifedipine). <span><body><html>

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The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of autoimmune pancreatitis and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a tubulointerstitial pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.

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Flashcard 1634465877260

Question
The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of autoimmune pancreatitis and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a [...] pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.
Answer
tubulointerstitial


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ml>The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of autoimmune pancreatitis and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a tubulointerstitial pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.<html>

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Flashcard 1634467450124

Question
The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of [...] and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a tubulointerstitial pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.
Answer
autoimmune pancreatitis


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The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of autoimmune pancreatitis and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a tubulointerstitial pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.</s

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Systemic IgG4-related disease is an uncommon disorder characterized by infiltration of different organs by lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates of IgG4-positive plasma cells with resultant fibrosis associated with elevated serum IgG4 levels

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Flashcard 1634470595852

Question
Systemic IgG4-related disease is an uncommon disorder characterized by infiltration of different organs by [...] infiltrates of IgG4-positive plasma cells with resultant fibrosis associated with elevated serum IgG4 levels
Answer
lymphoplasmacytic


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Systemic IgG4-related disease is an uncommon disorder characterized by infiltration of different organs by lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates of IgG4-positive plasma cells with resultant fibrosis associated with elevated serum IgG4 levels

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The first step when assessing a patient with metabolic alkalosis is to clinically assess the patient's volume status.

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Flashcard 1634473741580

Question
The first step when assessing a patient with metabolic alkalosis is to clinically assess the patient's [...]
Answer
volume status.


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The first step when assessing a patient with metabolic alkalosis is to clinically assess the patient's volume status.

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This patient has metabolic alkalosis as implied by the elevated serum bicarbonate and is hypovolemic as evidenced by the orthostatic blood pressure and pulse changes. Such a patient would be expected to have low urine concentrations of sodium and chloride. However, these patient’s urine electrolytes show increased excretion of sodium and chloride despite the evident hypovolemia. These findings suggest the presence of active diuretic use or a renal tubular defect that impairs handling of sodium and chloride, such as Bartter and Gitelman syndromes.

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Flashcard 1634476887308

Question
This patient has metabolic alkalosis as implied by the elevated serum bicarbonate and is hypovolemic as evidenced by the orthostatic blood pressure and pulse changes. Such a patient would be expected to have low urine concentrations of sodium and chloride. However, these patient’s urine electrolytes show increased excretion of sodium and chloride despite the evident hypovolemia. These findings suggest the presence of active diuretic use or a renal tubular defect that impairs handling of sodium and chloride, such as [...] syndromes.
Answer
Bartter and Gitelman


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urine electrolytes show increased excretion of sodium and chloride despite the evident hypovolemia. These findings suggest the presence of active diuretic use or a renal tubular defect that impairs handling of sodium and chloride, such as <span>Bartter and Gitelman syndromes.<span><body><html>

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Measurement of 24-hour urine free cortisol excretion is a standard test for diagnosing Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, hypokalemia, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.

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Flashcard 1634480033036

Question
Measurement of 24-hour urine free cortisol excretion is a standard test for diagnosing [...], which is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, hypokalemia, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.
Answer
Cushing syndrome


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Measurement of 24-hour urine free cortisol excretion is a standard test for diagnosing Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, hypokalemia, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.

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Plasma aldosterone-plasma renin ratio is unlikely to be helpful in this situation. Although primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, the absence of hypertension makes this diagnosis unlikely

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Flashcard 1634483178764

Question
Plasma aldosterone-plasma renin ratio is unlikely to be helpful in this situation. Although [...] is characterized by hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, the absence of hypertension makes this diagnosis unlikely
Answer
primary hyperaldosteronism


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Plasma aldosterone-plasma renin ratio is unlikely to be helpful in this situation. Although primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, the absence of hypertension makes this diagnosis unlikely

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In place of the current model - two or three years of vocabulary, grammar, and conversation, fol lowed by literature courses - the new approach incorporates more culture from the start. Newspa per clippings, fiction, video clips, and advertise ments form an integral part of lessons. Students, for example, become familiar with the German used in political speeches and learn how it differs from that used in a business letter or soap opera

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Flashcard 1634531151116

Tags
#baii
Question
How do you change the decimals points?
Answer
2nd ------> Format (abajo al lado del 0)

En DEC escoges los que quieres entre 0 y 8 y le picas enter


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It appears that professional and amateur littérateurs—who were seemingly honest and intelligent—fabricated narratives in mujālasāt that they recounted as being truthful and historical. Drawing on previous scholarship on Arabic, European, and Persian historiography and literature, I argue that littérateurs employed a set of principles for speaking in assembly that need not be reconciled with our own modern principles.

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Part two of the book analyzes the impact of mujālasāt on the formation of tradition

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Flashcard 1634536656140

Tags
#baii
Question
De que es una pista SET?
Answer
De lo siguiente que debes usar (que si le picas SET va a cambiar el pedo)


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Flashcard 1634538491148

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#baii
Question
How do you make a hard reset?
Answer
le picas con una aguja el botoncito de atras


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Flashcard 1634540326156

Tags
#baii
Question
Why would you need a hard reset?
Answer
Problems with hardware

Como cuando se traba el puto iphone


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Flashcard 1634542161164

Tags
#baii
Question
Como reseteo a las funciones de fabrica?
Answer
2nd -----> Reset------->Enter


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