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Flashcard 1438443244812

Tags
#analyst-notes #cfa-level-1 #corporate-finance #reading-35-capital-budgeting #study-session-10
Question
Which of the following is not one of the primary benefits of conducting a post-audit during the capital budgeting process?

A. It will motivate managers and employees to work harder in order to meet the forecasts that were set after consultations with them.
B. It will narrow down the list of projects that management should undertake in the future.
C. It will motivate managers and employees to become more productive, since they know that their performance is being monitored.
D. It will enable senior managers to identify why actual results differ from those they had originally forecast, thus improving their forecasting abilities.


Answer
Correct Answer: B


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Independent versus mutually exclusive projects. Mutually exclusive projects are investments that compete in some way for a company's resources - a firm can select one or another but not both. Independent projects, on the other hand, do not compete for the firm's resources. A company can select one or the other or both, so long

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Subject 2. Basic Principles of Capital Budgeting
In a non-conventional cash flow pattern, the initial outflow can be followed by inflows and/or outflows. <span>Some project interactions: Independent versus mutually exclusive projects. Mutually exclusive projects are investments that compete in some way for a company's resources - a firm can select one or another but not both. Independent projects, on the other hand, do not compete for the firm's resources. A company can select one or the other or both, so long as minimum profitability thresholds are met. Project sequencing. How does one sequence multiple projects over time, since investing in project B may depend on the result of investing in project A? Unlimited funds versus capital rationing. Capital rationing occurs when management places a constraint on the size of the firm's capital budget during a particular period. In such situations, capital is scarce and should be allocated to the projects most likely to maximize the firm's aggregate NPV. The firm's capital budget and cost of capital must be determined simultaneously to best allocate the firm's capital. On the other hand, a firm can raise the funds it wants for all profitable projects simply by paying the required rate of return. Learning Outcome Statements b. describe the basic principles of capital budgeting; c. explain how the evaluat







Flashcard 1620866632972

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #reading-23-financial-reporting-mechanics
Question
Name the financial statement element

Depreciation and amortization
Answer
Expense


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Exhibit 2. Common Accounts Assets Cash and cash equivalents Accounts receivable, trade receivables Prepaid expenses Inventory Property, plant, and equipment Investment propert

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3.1. Financial Statement Elements and Accounts
ounting periods), and sales returns and allowances (an offset to revenue reflecting any cash refunds, credits on account, and discounts from sales prices given to customers who purchased defective or unsatisfactory items). <span>Exhibit 2. Common Accounts Assets Cash and cash equivalents Accounts receivable, trade receivables Prepaid expenses Inventory Property, plant, and equipment Investment property Intangible assets (patents, trademarks, licenses, copyright, goodwill) Financial assets, trading securities, investment securities Investments accounted for by the equity method Current and deferred tax assets [for banks, Loans (receivable)] Liabilities Accounts payable, trade payables Provisions or accrued liabilities Financial liabilities Current and deferred tax liabilities Reserves Unearned revenue Debt payable Bonds (payable) [for banks, Deposits] Owners’ Equity Capital, such as common stock par value Additional paid-in capital Retained earnings Other comprehensive income Minority interest Revenue Revenue, sales Gains Investment income (e.g., interest and dividends) Expense Cost of goods sold Selling, general, and administrative expenses “SG&A” (e.g., rent, utilities, salaries, advertising) Depreciation and amortization Interest expense Tax expense Losses For presentation purposes, assets are sometimes categorized as “current” or “non-current.” For example, Tesco (a large European retailer) prese







Flashcard 1644880858380

Tags
#reading-9-probability-concepts
Question
The return on a risky asset is an example of a [...]
Answer


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Approximately 50% of these high-risk patients with acalculus cholecystitis will develop cholangitis, empyema, gangrene, or gallbladder perforation during their hospitalization. Supportive treatment with intravenous antibiotic coverage of anaerobic and gram-negative bacteria is required. Definitive therapy with cholecystectomy is preferred but may be contraindicated in severely ill patients

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Flashcard 1654657256716

Question
Approximately 50% of these high-risk patients with acalculus cholecystitis will develop [...] during their hospitalization. Supportive treatment with intravenous antibiotic coverage of anaerobic and gram-negative bacteria is required. Definitive therapy with cholecystectomy is preferred but may be contraindicated in severely ill patients
Answer
cholangitis, empyema, gangrene, or gallbladder perforation


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Approximately 50% of these high-risk patients with acalculus cholecystitis will develop cholangitis, empyema, gangrene, or gallbladder perforation during their hospitalization. Supportive treatment with intravenous antibiotic coverage of anaerobic and gram-negative bacteria is required. Definitive therapy with cholecystectomy is p

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Flashcard 1654658829580

Question
Approximately 50% of these high-risk patients with acalculus cholecystitis will develop cholangitis, empyema, gangrene, or gallbladder perforation during their hospitalization. Supportive treatment with intravenous antibiotic coverage of [...] bacteria is required. Definitive therapy with cholecystectomy is preferred but may be contraindicated in severely ill patients
Answer
anaerobic and gram-negative


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pan>Approximately 50% of these high-risk patients with acalculus cholecystitis will develop cholangitis, empyema, gangrene, or gallbladder perforation during their hospitalization. Supportive treatment with intravenous antibiotic coverage of <span>anaerobic and gram-negative bacteria is required. Definitive therapy with cholecystectomy is preferred but may be contraindicated in severely ill patients<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1654660402444

Question
Approximately 50% of these high-risk patients with acalculus cholecystitis will develop cholangitis, empyema, gangrene, or gallbladder perforation during their hospitalization. Supportive treatment with intravenous antibiotic coverage of anaerobic and gram-negative bacteria is required. Definitive therapy with [...] is preferred but may be contraindicated in severely ill patients
Answer
cholecystectomy


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itis will develop cholangitis, empyema, gangrene, or gallbladder perforation during their hospitalization. Supportive treatment with intravenous antibiotic coverage of anaerobic and gram-negative bacteria is required. Definitive therapy with <span>cholecystectomy is preferred but may be contraindicated in severely ill patients<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1654673509644

Tags
#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Question
A distribution that specifies the probabilities of a random variable’s possible outcomes.
Answer
Probability distribution


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Flashcard 1654675344652

Tags
#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Question
[...] , a computer-based tool for obtaining information on complex problems.
Answer
Monte Carlo simulation


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Flashcard 1654677966092

Tags
#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Question
The two basic types of random variables are [...] random variables and [...] random variables.
Answer
discrete

continuous


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Flashcard 1654679801100

Tags
#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Question
A random variable that can take on at most a countable number of possible values.
Answer
Discrete random variable


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#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
We follow the convention that an uppercase letter represents a random variable and a lowercase letter represents an outcome or specific value of the random variable. Thus X refers to the random variable, and x refers to an outcome of X. We subscript outcomes, as in x1 and x2, when we need to distinguish among different outcomes in a list of outcomes of a random variable.

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Flashcard 1654683471116

Tags
#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Question
A random variable for which the range of possible outcomes is the real line (all real numbers between −∞ and +∞ or some subset of the real line).
Answer
Continuous random variable

continuous


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#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
For example, a discrete random variable X can take on a limited number of outcomes x1, x2, …, xn (n possible outcomes), or a discrete random variable Y can take on an unlimited number of outcomes y1, y2, … (without end).1 Because we can count all the possible outcomes of X and Y (even if we go on forever in the case of Y), both X and Y satisfy the definition of a discrete random variable. By contrast, we cannot count the outcomes of a continuous random variable. We cannot describe the possible outcomes of a continuous random variable Z with a list z1, z2, … because the outcome (z1 + z2)/2, not in the list, would always be possible. Rate of return is an example of a continuous random variable.

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#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
In working with a random variable, we need to understand its possible outcomes. For example, a majority of the stocks traded on the New Zealand Stock Exchange are quoted in ticks of NZ$0.01. Quoted stock price is thus a discrete random variable with possible values NZ$0, NZ$0.01, NZ$0.02

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#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
In most practical cases, a probability distribution is only a mathematical idealization, or approximate model, of the relative frequencies of a random variable’s possible outcomes.

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Flashcard 1654691859724

Tags
#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Question
A function that specifies the probability that the random variable takes on a specific value.
Answer
Probability function


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Low-risk gastric ulcers are clean-based or have a nonprotuberant pigmented spot and should be treated with oral PPI therapy, initiation of refeeding within 24 hours, and early hospital discharge.

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Flashcard 1654699199756

Question
Low-risk gastric ulcers are clean-based or have a [...] spot and should be treated with oral PPI therapy, initiation of refeeding within 24 hours, and early hospital discharge.
Answer
nonprotuberant pigmented


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Low-risk gastric ulcers are clean-based or have a nonprotuberant pigmented spot and should be treated with oral PPI therapy, initiation of refeeding within 24 hours, and early hospital discharge.

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Blood transfusion for upper GI bleeding should be performed in patients with (1) hemodynamic instability and ongoing bleeding or susceptibility to complications from oxygen deprivation (for example, ischemic heart disease) and (2) a hemoglobin level less than 7 g/dL (70 g/L) if hemodynamically stable with no active or massive bleeding

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Flashcard 1654703131916

Question
Blood transfusion for upper GI bleeding should be performed in patients with (1) [...] and (2) a hemoglobin level less than 7 g/dL (70 g/L) if hemodynamically stable with no active or massive bleeding
Answer
hemodynamic instability and ongoing bleeding or susceptibility to complications from oxygen deprivation (for example, ischemic heart disease)


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Blood transfusion for upper GI bleeding should be performed in patients with (1) hemodynamic instability and ongoing bleeding or susceptibility to complications from oxygen deprivation (for example, ischemic heart disease) and (2) a hemoglobin level less than 7 g/dL (70 g/L) if hemodynamically stable with no active or massive bleeding

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Flashcard 1654704704780

Question
Blood transfusion for upper GI bleeding should be performed in patients with (1) hemodynamic instability and ongoing bleeding or susceptibility to complications from oxygen deprivation (for example, ischemic heart disease) and (2) [...]
Answer
a hemoglobin level less than 7 g/dL (70 g/L) if hemodynamically stable with no active or massive bleeding


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span>Blood transfusion for upper GI bleeding should be performed in patients with (1) hemodynamic instability and ongoing bleeding or susceptibility to complications from oxygen deprivation (for example, ischemic heart disease) and (2) a hemoglobin level less than 7 g/dL (70 g/L) if hemodynamically stable with no active or massive bleeding<span><body><html>

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Patients with cirrhosis who meet the Milan criteria (up to three hepatocellular carcinomas tumors ≤3 cm or one tumor ≤5 cm) are best treated with liver transplantation and have excellent 5-year survival rates.

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Flashcard 1654707850508

Question
Patients with cirrhosis who meet the Milan criteria (up to three hepatocellular carcinomas tumors ≤[...] cm or one tumor ≤5 cm) are best treated with liver transplantation and have excellent 5-year survival rates.
Answer
3


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Patients with cirrhosis who meet the Milan criteria (up to three hepatocellular carcinomas tumors ≤3 cm or one tumor ≤5 cm) are best treated with liver transplantation and have excellent 5-year survival rates.

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Flashcard 1654709423372

Question
Patients with cirrhosis who meet the Milan criteria (up to three hepatocellular carcinomas tumors ≤3 cm or one tumor ≤[...] cm) are best treated with liver transplantation and have excellent 5-year survival rates.
Answer
5


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Patients with cirrhosis who meet the Milan criteria (up to three hepatocellular carcinomas tumors ≤3 cm or one tumor ≤5 cm) are best treated with liver transplantation and have excellent 5-year survival rates.

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Flashcard 1654710996236

Question
Patients with cirrhosis who meet the Milan criteria (up to three hepatocellular carcinomas tumors ≤3 cm or one tumor ≤5 cm) are best treated with [...] and have excellent 5-year survival rates.
Answer
liver transplantation


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Patients with cirrhosis who meet the Milan criteria (up to three hepatocellular carcinomas tumors ≤3 cm or one tumor ≤5 cm) are best treated with liver transplantation and have excellent 5-year survival rates.

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Flashcard 1654712569100

Question
Patients with cirrhosis who meet the Milan criteria (up to three hepatocellular carcinomas tumors ≤3 cm or one tumor ≤5 cm) are best treated with liver transplantation and have excellent [...]-year survival rates.
Answer
5


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Patients with cirrhosis who meet the Milan criteria (up to three hepatocellular carcinomas tumors ≤3 cm or one tumor ≤5 cm) are best treated with liver transplantation and have excellent 5-year survival rates.

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A diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma can be made in a patient with cirrhosis in the presence of lesions larger than 1 cm that enhance in the arterial phase and have washout of contrast in the venous phase

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Flashcard 1654715714828

Question
A diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma can be made in a patient with cirrhosis in the presence of lesions larger than [...] cm that enhance in the arterial phase and have washout of contrast in the venous phase
Answer
1


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A diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma can be made in a patient with cirrhosis in the presence of lesions larger than 1 cm that enhance in the arterial phase and have washout of contrast in the venous phase

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Flashcard 1654717287692

Question
A diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma can be made in a patient with cirrhosis in the presence of lesions larger than 1 cm that enhance in the [...]
Answer
arterial phase and have washout of contrast in the venous phase


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A diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma can be made in a patient with cirrhosis in the presence of lesions larger than 1 cm that enhance in the arterial phase and have washout of contrast in the venous phase

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The vast majority of hepatocellular carcinomas in the context of cirrhosis can be diagnosed with radiologic criteria alone.

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Flashcard 1654720433420

Question
The vast majority of hepatocellular carcinomas in the context of cirrhosis can be diagnosed with [...] alone.
Answer
radiologic criteria


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The vast majority of hepatocellular carcinomas in the context of cirrhosis can be diagnosed with radiologic criteria alone.

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Sorafenib, a compound that targets growth signaling and angiogenesis, should be reserved for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class A or B cirrhosis, good performance status, and vascular, lymphatic, or extrahepatic spread of the tumor.

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Flashcard 1654723579148

Question
Sorafenib, a compound that targets growth [...], should be reserved for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class A or B cirrhosis, good performance status, and vascular, lymphatic, or extrahepatic spread of the tumor.
Answer
signaling and angiogenesis


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Sorafenib, a compound that targets growth signaling and angiogenesis, should be reserved for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class A or B cirrhosis, good performance status, and vascular, lymphatic, or extrahepatic spread of the tumor.

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Flashcard 1654725152012

Question
Sorafenib, a compound that targets growth signaling and angiogenesis, should be reserved for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class [...] cirrhosis, good performance status, and vascular, lymphatic, or extrahepatic spread of the tumor.
Answer
A or B


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Sorafenib, a compound that targets growth signaling and angiogenesis, should be reserved for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class A or B cirrhosis, good performance status, and vascular, lymphatic, or extrahepatic spread of the tumor.

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Flashcard 1654726724876

Question
Sorafenib, a compound that targets growth signaling and angiogenesis, should be reserved for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class A or B cirrhosis, good performance status, and [...] spread of the tumor.
Answer
vascular, lymphatic, or extrahepatic


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Sorafenib, a compound that targets growth signaling and angiogenesis, should be reserved for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class A or B cirrhosis, good performance status, and vascular, lymphatic, or extrahepatic spread of the tumor.

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Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) should not be performed before referral to a transplant center. Ultimately, patients who are expected to be on the waiting list for longer than 6 months are recommended to receive locoregional therapy such as TACE to control the tumor while awaiting a transplant. However, TACE should only be performed after the liver transplant evaluation is completed.

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Flashcard 1654730132748

Question
Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) should not be performed before [...]. Ultimately, patients who are expected to be on the waiting list for longer than 6 months are recommended to receive locoregional therapy such as TACE to control the tumor while awaiting a transplant. However, TACE should only be performed after the liver transplant evaluation is completed.
Answer
referral to a transplant center


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Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) should not be performed before referral to a transplant center. Ultimately, patients who are expected to be on the waiting list for longer than 6 months are recommended to receive locoregional therapy such as TACE to control the tumor while awai

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Flashcard 1654731967756

Question
Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) should not be performed before referral to a transplant center. Ultimately, patients who are expected to be on the waiting list for longer than [...] months are recommended to receive locoregional therapy such as TACE to control the tumor while awaiting a transplant. However, TACE should only be performed after the liver transplant evaluation is completed.
Answer
6


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Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) should not be performed before referral to a transplant center. Ultimately, patients who are expected to be on the waiting list for longer than 6 months are recommended to receive locoregional therapy such as TACE to control the tumor while awaiting a transplant. However, TACE should only be performed after the liver transplan

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Flashcard 1654733540620

Question
Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) should not be performed before referral to a transplant center. Ultimately, patients who are expected to be on the waiting list for longer than 6 months are recommended to receive locoregional therapy such as TACE to control the tumor while awaiting a transplant. However, TACE should only be performed after the [...] is completed.
Answer
liver transplant evaluation


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, patients who are expected to be on the waiting list for longer than 6 months are recommended to receive locoregional therapy such as TACE to control the tumor while awaiting a transplant. However, TACE should only be performed after the <span>liver transplant evaluation is completed.<span><body><html>

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Patients with a positive antibody to hepatitis C virus (HCV) but negative HCV RNA do not have HCV infection, and no further testing is required

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Flashcard 1654736686348

Question
Patients with a positive antibody to hepatitis C virus (HCV) but negative HCV RNA [...] HCV infection, and no further testing is required
Answer
do not have


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Patients with a positive antibody to hepatitis C virus (HCV) but negative HCV RNA do not have HCV infection, and no further testing is required

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Positive anti-HCV with negative HCV RNA indicates either false-positive anti-HCV or cleared infection, and positive anti-HCV with positive HCV RNA indicates active infection. Rarely, in instances of acute HCV infection or in an immunosuppressed patient, HCV RNA may be positive despite a negative anti-HCV

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Flashcard 1654739832076

Question
Positive anti-HCV with negative HCV RNA indicates either [...] anti-HCV or cleared infection, and positive anti-HCV with positive HCV RNA indicates active infection. Rarely, in instances of acute HCV infection or in an immunosuppressed patient, HCV RNA may be positive despite a negative anti-HCV
Answer
false-positive


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Positive anti-HCV with negative HCV RNA indicates either false-positive anti-HCV or cleared infection, and positive anti-HCV with positive HCV RNA indicates active infection. Rarely, in instances of acute HCV infection or in an immunosuppressed patient,

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Flashcard 1654741404940

Question
Positive anti-HCV with negative HCV RNA indicates either false-positive anti-HCV or [...] infection, and positive anti-HCV with positive HCV RNA indicates active infection. Rarely, in instances of acute HCV infection or in an immunosuppressed patient, HCV RNA may be positive despite a negative anti-HCV
Answer
cleared


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Positive anti-HCV with negative HCV RNA indicates either false-positive anti-HCV or cleared infection, and positive anti-HCV with positive HCV RNA indicates active infection. Rarely, in instances of acute HCV infection or in an immunosuppressed patient, HCV RNA may be posit

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Flashcard 1654742977804

Question
Positive anti-HCV with negative HCV RNA indicates either false-positive anti-HCV or cleared infection, and positive anti-HCV with positive HCV RNA indicates [...] infection. Rarely, in instances of acute HCV infection or in an immunosuppressed patient, HCV RNA may be positive despite a negative anti-HCV
Answer
active


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Positive anti-HCV with negative HCV RNA indicates either false-positive anti-HCV or cleared infection, and positive anti-HCV with positive HCV RNA indicates active infection. Rarely, in instances of acute HCV infection or in an immunosuppressed patient, HCV RNA may be positive despite a negative anti-HCV

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Flashcard 1654744812812

Question
Positive anti-HCV with negative HCV RNA indicates either false-positive anti-HCV or cleared infection, and positive anti-HCV with positive HCV RNA indicates active infection. Rarely, in instances of [...] patient, HCV RNA may be positive despite a negative anti-HCV
Answer
acute HCV infection or in an immunosuppressed


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Positive anti-HCV with negative HCV RNA indicates either false-positive anti-HCV or cleared infection, and positive anti-HCV with positive HCV RNA indicates active infection. Rarely, in instances of acute HCV infection or in an immunosuppressed patient, HCV RNA may be positive despite a negative anti-HCV

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Because MYH-associated polyposis is an autosomal recessive disorder, both parents must be carriers of an MYH mutation in order for a child to inherit the syndrome.

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Flashcard 1654747958540

Question
Because MYH-associated polyposis is an autosomal [...] disorder, both parents must be carriers of an MYH mutation in order for a child to inherit the syndrome.
Answer
recessive


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Because MYH-associated polyposis is an autosomal recessive disorder, both parents must be carriers of an MYH mutation in order for a child to inherit the syndrome.

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Genetic testing is usually done at the age at which high-risk colorectal cancer screening would begin, which is 18 years in MAP and attenuated familial adenomatous polyposis and 12 to 15 years in classic FAP

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Flashcard 1654751104268

Question
Genetic testing is usually done at the age at which high-risk colorectal cancer screening would begin, which is [...] years in MAP and attenuated familial adenomatous polyposis and 12 to 15 years in classic FAP
Answer
18


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Genetic testing is usually done at the age at which high-risk colorectal cancer screening would begin, which is 18 years in MAP and attenuated familial adenomatous polyposis and 12 to 15 years in classic FAP

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Flashcard 1654752677132

Question
Genetic testing is usually done at the age at which high-risk colorectal cancer screening would begin, which is 18 years in MAP and attenuated familial adenomatous polyposis and [...] years in classic FAP
Answer
12 to 15


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Genetic testing is usually done at the age at which high-risk colorectal cancer screening would begin, which is 18 years in MAP and attenuated familial adenomatous polyposis and 12 to 15 years in classic FAP

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Patients with variceal hemorrhage and cirrhosis are at high risk for infection and require antibiotic prophylaxis, regardless of the presence or absence of ascites

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Flashcard 1654755822860

Question
Patients with variceal hemorrhage and cirrhosis are at high risk for infection and require [...] prophylaxis, regardless of the presence or absence of ascites
Answer
antibiotic


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Patients with variceal hemorrhage and cirrhosis are at high risk for infection and require antibiotic prophylaxis, regardless of the presence or absence of ascites

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An oral fluoroquinolone such as norfloxacin or intravenous ciprofloxacin (when oral intake is not possible) are the acceptable choices. Intravenous ceftriaxone may be more effective for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class B and C cirrhosis

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Flashcard 1654758968588

Question
An oral fluoroquinolone such as [...] (when oral intake is not possible) are the acceptable choices. Intravenous ceftriaxone may be more effective for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class B and C cirrhosis
Answer
norfloxacin or intravenous ciprofloxacin


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An oral fluoroquinolone such as norfloxacin or intravenous ciprofloxacin (when oral intake is not possible) are the acceptable choices. Intravenous ceftriaxone may be more effective for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class B and C cirrhosis</spa

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Flashcard 1654760541452

Question
An oral fluoroquinolone such as norfloxacin or intravenous ciprofloxacin (when oral intake is not possible) are the acceptable choices. Intravenous ceftriaxone may be more effective for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class [...] cirrhosis
Answer
B and C


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> An oral fluoroquinolone such as norfloxacin or intravenous ciprofloxacin (when oral intake is not possible) are the acceptable choices. Intravenous ceftriaxone may be more effective for patients with Child-Turcotte-Pugh class B and C cirrhosis<body><html>

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A nonselective β-blocker is recommended as secondary prophylaxis after recovery from a variceal bleed, but it would not be warranted in the acute setting in this patient with hypotension

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Flashcard 1654763687180

Question
A nonselective β-blocker is recommended as [...] after recovery from a variceal bleed, but it would not be warranted in the acute setting in this patient with hypotension
Answer
secondary prophylaxis


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A nonselective β-blocker is recommended as secondary prophylaxis after recovery from a variceal bleed, but it would not be warranted in the acute setting in this patient with hypotension

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An upper endoscopy should be performed in this patient with presumed variceal hemorrhage within 12 hours, but only after she has been treated with standard pharmacotherapy (octreotide and antibiotics) and appropriately resuscitated to enable safe endoscopy. A blood pressure of 72/54 mm Hg is too low to be able to proceed immediately with a safe endoscopy

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Flashcard 1654766832908

Question
An upper endoscopy should be performed in this patient with presumed variceal hemorrhage within [...] hours, but only after she has been treated with standard pharmacotherapy (octreotide and antibiotics) and appropriately resuscitated to enable safe endoscopy. A blood pressure of 72/54 mm Hg is too low to be able to proceed immediately with a safe endoscopy
Answer
12


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An upper endoscopy should be performed in this patient with presumed variceal hemorrhage within 12 hours, but only after she has been treated with standard pharmacotherapy (octreotide and antibiotics) and appropriately resuscitated to enable safe endoscopy. A blood pressure of 72/

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Flashcard 1654768405772

Question
An upper endoscopy should be performed in this patient with presumed variceal hemorrhage within 12 hours, but only after she has been treated with [...] to enable safe endoscopy. A blood pressure of 72/54 mm Hg is too low to be able to proceed immediately with a safe endoscopy
Answer
standard pharmacotherapy (octreotide and antibiotics) and appropriately resuscitated


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An upper endoscopy should be performed in this patient with presumed variceal hemorrhage within 12 hours, but only after she has been treated with standard pharmacotherapy (octreotide and antibiotics) and appropriately resuscitated to enable safe endoscopy. A blood pressure of 72/54 mm Hg is too low to be able to proceed immediately with a safe endoscopy

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The most likely diagnosis is celiac disease. This patient has the combination of loose stools, unintentional weight loss, elevated liver chemistry test results, and iron deficiency anemia without an obvious source of blood loss. Minor elevations of serum aminotransferase levels are found in up to 50% of patients with celiac disease and may be the only presenting feature in approximately 9% of patients. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is usually less than 80 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually less than 130 U/L.

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Flashcard 1654772600076

Question
The most likely diagnosis is celiac disease. This patient has the combination of loose stools, unintentional weight loss, elevated liver chemistry test results, and iron deficiency anemia without an obvious source of blood loss. Minor elevations of serum aminotransferase levels are found in up to [...]% of patients with celiac disease and may be the only presenting feature in approximately 9% of patients. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is usually less than 80 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually less than 130 U/L.
Answer
50


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as the combination of loose stools, unintentional weight loss, elevated liver chemistry test results, and iron deficiency anemia without an obvious source of blood loss. Minor elevations of serum aminotransferase levels are found in up to <span>50% of patients with celiac disease and may be the only presenting feature in approximately 9% of patients. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is usually less than 80 U/L, and alanin

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Flashcard 1654774172940

Question
The most likely diagnosis is celiac disease. This patient has the combination of loose stools, unintentional weight loss, elevated liver chemistry test results, and iron deficiency anemia without an obvious source of blood loss. Minor elevations of serum aminotransferase levels are found in up to 50% of patients with celiac disease and may be the only presenting feature in approximately [...]% of patients. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is usually less than 80 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually less than 130 U/L.
Answer
9


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t results, and iron deficiency anemia without an obvious source of blood loss. Minor elevations of serum aminotransferase levels are found in up to 50% of patients with celiac disease and may be the only presenting feature in approximately <span>9% of patients. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is usually less than 80 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually less than 130 U/L.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1654775745804

Question
The most likely diagnosis is celiac disease. This patient has the combination of loose stools, unintentional weight loss, elevated liver chemistry test results, and iron deficiency anemia without an obvious source of blood loss. Minor elevations of serum aminotransferase levels are found in up to 50% of patients with celiac disease and may be the only presenting feature in approximately 9% of patients. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is usually less than [...] U/L, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually less than 130 U/L.
Answer
80


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s. Minor elevations of serum aminotransferase levels are found in up to 50% of patients with celiac disease and may be the only presenting feature in approximately 9% of patients. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is usually less than <span>80 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually less than 130 U/L.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1654777318668

Question
The most likely diagnosis is celiac disease. This patient has the combination of loose stools, unintentional weight loss, elevated liver chemistry test results, and iron deficiency anemia without an obvious source of blood loss. Minor elevations of serum aminotransferase levels are found in up to 50% of patients with celiac disease and may be the only presenting feature in approximately 9% of patients. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is usually less than 80 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually less than [...] U/L.
Answer
130


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n up to 50% of patients with celiac disease and may be the only presenting feature in approximately 9% of patients. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is usually less than 80 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually less than <span>130 U/L.<span><body><html>

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Patients with celiac disease can also have coexisting liver disease such as autoimmune hepatitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, or primary biliary cirrhosis

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Flashcard 1654780464396

Question
Patients with celiac disease can also have coexisting liver disease such as [...]
Answer
autoimmune hepatitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, or primary biliary cirrhosis


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Patients with celiac disease can also have coexisting liver disease such as autoimmune hepatitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, or primary biliary cirrhosis

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Improvements in liver chemistry studies that are related to celiac disease occur when such patients are treated with a gluten-free diet.

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Flashcard 1654783610124

Question
Improvements in liver chemistry studies that are related to celiac disease occur when such patients are treated with a [...].
Answer
gluten-free diet


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Improvements in liver chemistry studies that are related to celiac disease occur when such patients are treated with a gluten-free diet.

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PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels

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Flashcard 1654786755852

Question
PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than [...] times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels
Answer
1.5


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PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels

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Flashcard 1654788328716

Question
PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically [...] serum total bilirubin levels
Answer
normal


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PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels

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Up to 20% of patients with symptomatic gallbladder stones will have a common bile duct stone.

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Flashcard 1654791998732

Question
Up to [...]% of patients with symptomatic gallbladder stones will have a common bile duct stone.
Answer
20


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Up to 20% of patients with symptomatic gallbladder stones will have a common bile duct stone.

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Acute pancreatitis could be a complication of a common bile duct stone, but the pain would not be intermittent and it would result in an elevated serum amylase level

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Flashcard 1654795144460

Question
Acute pancreatitis could be a complication of a common bile duct stone, but the pain would [...] intermittent and it would result in an elevated serum amylase level
Answer
not be


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Acute pancreatitis could be a complication of a common bile duct stone, but the pain would not be intermittent and it would result in an elevated serum amylase level

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Metoclopramide is the only drug approved by the FDA for the treatment of gastroparesis; however, metoclopramide is associated with side effects such as hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea, and tardive dyskinesia that require discontinuation of the drug.

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Flashcard 1654798814476

Question
Metoclopramide is the only drug approved by the FDA for the treatment of [...]; however, metoclopramide is associated with side effects such as hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea, and tardive dyskinesia that require discontinuation of the drug.
Answer
gastroparesis


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Metoclopramide is the only drug approved by the FDA for the treatment of gastroparesis; however, metoclopramide is associated with side effects such as hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea, and tardive dyskinesia that require discontinuation of the drug. </bod

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Flashcard 1654800387340

Question
Metoclopramide is the only drug approved by the FDA for the treatment of gastroparesis; however, metoclopramide is associated with side effects such as [...] that require discontinuation of the drug.
Answer
hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea, and tardive dyskinesia


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Metoclopramide is the only drug approved by the FDA for the treatment of gastroparesis; however, metoclopramide is associated with side effects such as hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea, and tardive dyskinesia that require discontinuation of the drug.

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The initial treatment of diabetic gastroparesis should include a dietary management plan consisting of frequent small-volume meals that are low in fat and soluble fiber. Equally important is tight glycemic control

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Flashcard 1654803533068

Question
The initial treatment of diabetic gastroparesis should include a dietary management plan consisting of frequent [...]. Equally important is tight glycemic control
Answer
small-volume meals that are low in fat and soluble fiber


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The initial treatment of diabetic gastroparesis should include a dietary management plan consisting of frequent small-volume meals that are low in fat and soluble fiber. Equally important is tight glycemic control

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Flashcard 1654805105932

Question
The initial treatment of diabetic gastroparesis should include a dietary management plan consisting of frequent small-volume meals that are low in fat and soluble fiber. Equally important is [...]
Answer
tight glycemic control


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The initial treatment of diabetic gastroparesis should include a dietary management plan consisting of frequent small-volume meals that are low in fat and soluble fiber. Equally important is tight glycemic control

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The risks of neurologic side effects of metoclopromide are increased with chronic therapy (greater than 3 months) and with use in the elderly and in women

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Flashcard 1654809038092

Question
The risks of neurologic side effects of metoclopromide are increased with chronic therapy (greater than [...]) and with use in the elderly and in women
Answer
3 months


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The risks of neurologic side effects of metoclopromide are increased with chronic therapy (greater than 3 months) and with use in the elderly and in women

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Flashcard 1654810610956

Question
The risks of neurologic side effects of metoclopromide are increased with chronic therapy (greater than 3 months) and with use in the [...]
Answer
elderly and in women


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The risks of neurologic side effects of metoclopromide are increased with chronic therapy (greater than 3 months) and with use in the elderly and in women

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N-acetylcysteine has been shown in a randomized controlled trial to improve transplant-free survival in non–acetaminophen-related acute liver failure in patients with grade I or II hepatic encephalopathy

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Flashcard 1654813756684

Question
N-acetylcysteine has been shown in a randomized controlled trial to improve transplant-free survival in non–[...]-related acute liver failure in patients with grade I or II hepatic encephalopathy
Answer
acetaminophen


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N-acetylcysteine has been shown in a randomized controlled trial to improve transplant-free survival in non–acetaminophen-related acute liver failure in patients with grade I or II hepatic encephalopathy

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Flashcard 1654815329548

Question
N-acetylcysteine has been shown in a randomized controlled trial to improve transplant-free survival in non–acetaminophen-related acute liver failure in patients with grade [...] hepatic encephalopathy
Answer
I or II


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N-acetylcysteine has been shown in a randomized controlled trial to improve transplant-free survival in non–acetaminophen-related acute liver failure in patients with grade I or II hepatic encephalopathy

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absence of previous liver disease accompanied by new-onset hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy, usually in the presence of jaundice

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Flashcard 1654818737420

Question
define acute liver failure ALF ?
Answer
absence of previous liver disease accompanied by new-onset hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy, usually in the presence of jaundice


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absence of previous liver disease accompanied by new-onset hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy, usually in the presence of jaundice

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The cause of ALF is most likely amoxicillin-clavulanate, which is the most common cause of drug-induced liver injury.

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Flashcard 1654822669580

Question
The cause of ALF is most likely [...], which is the most common cause of drug-induced liver injury.
Answer
amoxicillin-clavulanate


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The cause of ALF is most likely amoxicillin-clavulanate, which is the most common cause of drug-induced liver injury.

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Intravenous acyclovir would be an appropriate treatment for herpes hepatitis. Herpes hepatitis classically presents with serum aminotransferase values in the multiple thousands and a disproportionately low serum bilirubin leve

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Flashcard 1654826077452

Question
Intravenous acyclovir would be an appropriate treatment for [...] hepatitis. Herpes hepatitis classically presents with serum aminotransferase values in the multiple thousands and a disproportionately low serum bilirubin leve
Answer
herpes


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Intravenous acyclovir would be an appropriate treatment for herpes hepatitis. Herpes hepatitis classically presents with serum aminotransferase values in the multiple thousands and a disproportionately low serum bilirubin leve</s

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Flashcard 1654827650316

Question
Intravenous acyclovir would be an appropriate treatment for herpes hepatitis. Herpes hepatitis classically presents with serum aminotransferase values in the [...]
Answer
multiple thousands and a disproportionately low serum bilirubin leve


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Intravenous acyclovir would be an appropriate treatment for herpes hepatitis. Herpes hepatitis classically presents with serum aminotransferase values in the multiple thousands and a disproportionately low serum bilirubin leve

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Oral pentoxifylline is a second-line treatment for alcoholic hepatitis

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Flashcard 1654830796044

Question
Oral pentoxifylline is a second-line treatment for [...] hepatitis
Answer
alcoholic


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Oral pentoxifylline is a second-line treatment for alcoholic hepatitis

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The classic presentation of eosinophilic esophagitis is a young man with solid-food dysphagia that requires endoscopy for removal

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Flashcard 1654833941772

Question
The classic presentation of [...] is a young man with solid-food dysphagia that requires endoscopy for removal
Answer
eosinophilic esophagitis


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The classic presentation of eosinophilic esophagitis is a young man with solid-food dysphagia that requires endoscopy for removal

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eosonophilic esophagitis EoE is the result of eosinophil cell infiltration of the esophageal squamous mucosa. The incidence of EoE is thought to be increasing, and it seems to parallel the increasing incidence of allergic disease and asthma

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Flashcard 1654837873932

Question
eosonophilic esophagitis EoE is the result of eosinophil cell infiltration of the esophageal [...]. The incidence of EoE is thought to be increasing, and it seems to parallel the increasing incidence of allergic disease and asthma
Answer
squamous mucosa


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eosonophilic esophagitis EoE is the result of eosinophil cell infiltration of the esophageal squamous mucosa. The incidence of EoE is thought to be increasing, and it seems to parallel the increasing incidence of allergic disease and asthma

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Flashcard 1654839446796

Question
eosonophilic esophagitis EoE is the result of eosinophil cell infiltration of the esophageal squamous mucosa. The incidence of EoE is thought to be increasing, and it seems to parallel the increasing incidence of [...]
Answer
allergic disease and asthma


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head><head>eosonophilic esophagitis EoE is the result of eosinophil cell infiltration of the esophageal squamous mucosa. The incidence of EoE is thought to be increasing, and it seems to parallel the increasing incidence of allergic disease and asthma<html>

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GERD must be excluded because it can also cause esophageal eosinophilic infiltration. This can be done with a therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for 8 weeks.

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Flashcard 1654842592524

Question
[...] must be excluded because it can also cause esophageal eosinophilic infiltration. This can be done with a therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for 8 weeks.
Answer
GERD


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GERD must be excluded because it can also cause esophageal eosinophilic infiltration. This can be done with a therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for 8 weeks.

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Flashcard 1654844165388

Question
GERD must be excluded because it can also cause esophageal eosinophilic infiltration. This can be done with a therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for [...] weeks.
Answer
8


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GERD must be excluded because it can also cause esophageal eosinophilic infiltration. This can be done with a therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for 8 weeks.

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Endoscopy often reveals characteristic findings of esonophilic esophagitis EoE such as rings, longitudinal furrows, and sometimes strictures. Medical therapy consists of swallowed aerosolized topical glucocorticoids (fluticasone or budesonide).

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Flashcard 1654848359692

Question
Endoscopy often reveals characteristic findings of esonophilic esophagitis EoE such as [...]. Medical therapy consists of swallowed aerosolized topical glucocorticoids (fluticasone or budesonide).
Answer
rings, longitudinal furrows, and sometimes strictures


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Endoscopy often reveals characteristic findings of esonophilic esophagitis EoE such as rings, longitudinal furrows, and sometimes strictures. Medical therapy consists of swallowed aerosolized topical glucocorticoids (fluticasone or budesonide).

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Flashcard 1654849932556

Question
Endoscopy often reveals characteristic findings of esonophilic esophagitis EoE such as rings, longitudinal furrows, and sometimes strictures. Medical therapy consists of swallowed aerosolized topical [...]).
Answer
glucocorticoids (fluticasone or budesonide


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Endoscopy often reveals characteristic findings of esonophilic esophagitis EoE such as rings, longitudinal furrows, and sometimes strictures. Medical therapy consists of swallowed aerosolized topical glucocorticoids (fluticasone or budesonide).

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Barrett esophagus (BE) is the result of chronic acid reflux, but it is usually not associated with dysphagia, especially in a young person. The diagnosis of BE is suggested by endoscopic findings of salmon-colored mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction compared with the normal pearl-colored squamous mucosa and is confirmed histologically by the presence of specialized intestinal metaplasia with acid-mucin–containing goblet cells

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Flashcard 1654853078284

Question
Barrett esophagus (BE) is the result of chronic acid reflux, but it is usually not associated with dysphagia, especially in a young person. The diagnosis of BE is suggested by endoscopic findings of [...]-colored mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction compared with the normal pearl-colored squamous mucosa and is confirmed histologically by the presence of specialized intestinal metaplasia with acid-mucin–containing goblet cells
Answer
salmon


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Barrett esophagus (BE) is the result of chronic acid reflux, but it is usually not associated with dysphagia, especially in a young person. The diagnosis of BE is suggested by endoscopic findings of salmon-colored mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction compared with the normal pearl-colored squamous mucosa and is confirmed histologically by the presence of specialized intestinal metap

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Flashcard 1654854651148

Question
Barrett esophagus (BE) is the result of chronic acid reflux, but it is usually not associated with dysphagia, especially in a young person. The diagnosis of BE is suggested by endoscopic findings of salmon-colored mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction compared with the normal pearl-colored squamous mucosa and is confirmed histologically by the presence of specialized intestinal [...] cells
Answer
metaplasia with acid-mucin–containing goblet


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diagnosis of BE is suggested by endoscopic findings of salmon-colored mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction compared with the normal pearl-colored squamous mucosa and is confirmed histologically by the presence of specialized intestinal <span>metaplasia with acid-mucin–containing goblet cells<span><body><html>

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Diffuse esophageal spasm is usually characterized by dysphagia or chest pain but not food impaction. Manometry shows intermittent, high- amplitude, simultaneous, nonperistaltic contractions in response to swallowing. Findings of a “corkscrew esophagus” (caused by multiple simultaneous contractions) on barium swallow are typical of diffuse esophageal spasm.

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Flashcard 1654857796876

Question
Diffuse esophageal spasm is usually characterized by dysphagia or chest pain but not food impaction. Manometry shows intermittent, [...] in response to swallowing. Findings of a “corkscrew esophagus” (caused by multiple simultaneous contractions) on barium swallow are typical of diffuse esophageal spasm.
Answer
high- amplitude, simultaneous, nonperistaltic contractions


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Diffuse esophageal spasm is usually characterized by dysphagia or chest pain but not food impaction. Manometry shows intermittent, high- amplitude, simultaneous, nonperistaltic contractions in response to swallowing. Findings of a “corkscrew esophagus” (caused by multiple simultaneous contractions) on barium swallow are typical of diffuse esophageal spasm.

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Flashcard 1654859369740

Question
Diffuse esophageal spasm is usually characterized by dysphagia or chest pain but not food impaction. Manometry shows intermittent, high- amplitude, simultaneous, nonperistaltic contractions in response to swallowing. Findings of a “[...]” (caused by multiple simultaneous contractions) on barium swallow are typical of diffuse esophageal spasm.
Answer
corkscrew esophagus


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an>Diffuse esophageal spasm is usually characterized by dysphagia or chest pain but not food impaction. Manometry shows intermittent, high- amplitude, simultaneous, nonperistaltic contractions in response to swallowing. Findings of a “corkscrew esophagus” (caused by multiple simultaneous contractions) on barium swallow are typical of diffuse esophageal spasm.<span><body><html>

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Upper endoscopy is recommended for surveillance of duodenal cancer every 1 to 5 years in all patients with familial adenomatous polyposis.

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Flashcard 1654862515468

Question
Upper endoscopy is recommended for surveillance of [...] cancer every 1 to 5 years in all patients with familial adenomatous polyposis.
Answer
duodenal


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Upper endoscopy is recommended for surveillance of duodenal cancer every 1 to 5 years in all patients with familial adenomatous polyposis.

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Flashcard 1654864088332

Question
Upper endoscopy is recommended for surveillance of duodenal cancer every [...] years in all patients with familial adenomatous polyposis.
Answer
1 to 5


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Upper endoscopy is recommended for surveillance of duodenal cancer every 1 to 5 years in all patients with familial adenomatous polyposis.

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A phenotypic variant of FAP called Gardner syndrome is associated with extraintestinal manifestations of FAP, which include congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium (CHRPE). CHRPE may be an indication of underlying FAP, but it has no attendant health risks for patients with FAP and does not require ongoing surveillance if detected

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Flashcard 1654867234060

Question
A phenotypic variant of FAP called [...] syndrome is associated with extraintestinal manifestations of FAP, which include congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium (CHRPE). CHRPE may be an indication of underlying FAP, but it has no attendant health risks for patients with FAP and does not require ongoing surveillance if detected
Answer
Gardner


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A phenotypic variant of FAP called Gardner syndrome is associated with extraintestinal manifestations of FAP, which include congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium (CHRPE). CHRPE may be an indication o

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Flashcard 1654868806924

Question
A phenotypic variant of FAP called Gardner syndrome is associated with extraintestinal manifestations of FAP, which include [...] (CHRPE). CHRPE may be an indication of underlying FAP, but it has no attendant health risks for patients with FAP and does not require ongoing surveillance if detected
Answer
congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium


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A phenotypic variant of FAP called Gardner syndrome is associated with extraintestinal manifestations of FAP, which include congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium (CHRPE). CHRPE may be an indication of underlying FAP, but it has no attendant health risks for patients with FAP and does not require ongoing surveillance if detected</spa

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The most appropriate management is serial monitoring of liver enzymes. This patient has acute hepatitis B without evidence of marked liver dysfunction (such as markedly increased INR or hepatic encephalopathy). Typical clinical symptoms include malaise, fatigue, nausea, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Jaundice and cholestasis can develop 1 to 2 weeks after the onset of symptoms. Acute hepatitis B infection will resolve (defined as clearance of hepatitis B surface antigen within 6 months) in 90% of adult patients. Serial monitoring of liver enzymes and markers of liver synthetic function is the most appropriate management strategy

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Flashcard 1654871952652

Question
The most appropriate management is serial monitoring of liver enzymes. This patient has acute hepatitis B without evidence of marked liver dysfunction (such as markedly increased INR or hepatic encephalopathy). Typical clinical symptoms include [...]. Jaundice and cholestasis can develop 1 to 2 weeks after the onset of symptoms. Acute hepatitis B infection will resolve (defined as clearance of hepatitis B surface antigen within 6 months) in 90% of adult patients. Serial monitoring of liver enzymes and markers of liver synthetic function is the most appropriate management strategy
Answer
malaise, fatigue, nausea, and right upper quadrant discomfort


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riate management is serial monitoring of liver enzymes. This patient has acute hepatitis B without evidence of marked liver dysfunction (such as markedly increased INR or hepatic encephalopathy). Typical clinical symptoms include <span>malaise, fatigue, nausea, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Jaundice and cholestasis can develop 1 to 2 weeks after the onset of symptoms. Acute hepatitis B infection will resolve (defined as clearance of hepatitis B surface antigen

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Flashcard 1654873525516

Question
The most appropriate management is serial monitoring of liver enzymes. This patient has acute hepatitis B without evidence of marked liver dysfunction (such as markedly increased INR or hepatic encephalopathy). Typical clinical symptoms include malaise, fatigue, nausea, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Jaundice and cholestasis can develop [...] weeks after the onset of symptoms. Acute hepatitis B infection will resolve (defined as clearance of hepatitis B surface antigen within 6 months) in 90% of adult patients. Serial monitoring of liver enzymes and markers of liver synthetic function is the most appropriate management strategy
Answer
1 to 2


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hout evidence of marked liver dysfunction (such as markedly increased INR or hepatic encephalopathy). Typical clinical symptoms include malaise, fatigue, nausea, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Jaundice and cholestasis can develop <span>1 to 2 weeks after the onset of symptoms. Acute hepatitis B infection will resolve (defined as clearance of hepatitis B surface antigen within 6 months) in 90% of adult patients.

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Flashcard 1654875098380

Question
The most appropriate management is serial monitoring of liver enzymes. This patient has acute hepatitis B without evidence of marked liver dysfunction (such as markedly increased INR or hepatic encephalopathy). Typical clinical symptoms include malaise, fatigue, nausea, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Jaundice and cholestasis can develop 1 to 2 weeks after the onset of symptoms. Acute hepatitis B infection will resolve (defined as [...]) in 90% of adult patients. Serial monitoring of liver enzymes and markers of liver synthetic function is the most appropriate management strategy
Answer
clearance of hepatitis B surface antigen within 6 months


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Typical clinical symptoms include malaise, fatigue, nausea, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Jaundice and cholestasis can develop 1 to 2 weeks after the onset of symptoms. Acute hepatitis B infection will resolve (defined as <span>clearance of hepatitis B surface antigen within 6 months) in 90% of adult patients. Serial monitoring of liver enzymes and markers of liver synthetic function is the most appropriate management strategy<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1654876671244

Question
The most appropriate management is serial monitoring of liver enzymes. This patient has acute hepatitis B without evidence of marked liver dysfunction (such as markedly increased INR or hepatic encephalopathy). Typical clinical symptoms include malaise, fatigue, nausea, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Jaundice and cholestasis can develop 1 to 2 weeks after the onset of symptoms. Acute hepatitis B infection will resolve (defined as clearance of hepatitis B surface antigen within 6 months) in 90% of adult patients. Serial monitoring of [...] and markers of liver synthetic function is the most appropriate management strategy
Answer
liver enzymes


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e and cholestasis can develop 1 to 2 weeks after the onset of symptoms. Acute hepatitis B infection will resolve (defined as clearance of hepatitis B surface antigen within 6 months) in 90% of adult patients. Serial monitoring of <span>liver enzymes and markers of liver synthetic function is the most appropriate management strategy<span><body><html>

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Patients with fulminant acute hepatitis B or severe protracted acute hepatitis B may be offered antiviral therapy with agents such as lamivudine, entecavir, or tenofovi

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Flashcard 1654880079116

Question
Patients with fulminant acute hepatitis B or severe protracted acute hepatitis B may be offered antiviral therapy with agents such as [...]
Answer
lamivudine, entecavir, or tenofovi


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Patients with fulminant acute hepatitis B or severe protracted acute hepatitis B may be offered antiviral therapy with agents such as lamivudine, entecavir, or tenofovi

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Pegylated interferon is contraindicated in acute hepatitis B owing to the risk of exacerbating liver inflammation

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Flashcard 1654883224844

Question
Pegylated interferon is [...] in acute hepatitis B owing to the risk of exacerbating liver inflammation
Answer
contraindicated


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Pegylated interferon is contraindicated in acute hepatitis B owing to the risk of exacerbating liver inflammation

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For patients with persistent pain due to chronic pancreatitis, pregabalin (or a low-dose tricyclic antidepressant) may be offered adjunctively, as part of a step-up approach to pain management, after an initial trial of acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and/or tramadol.

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Flashcard 1654886370572

Question
For patients with persistent pain due to chronic pancreatitis, [...]) may be offered adjunctively, as part of a step-up approach to pain management, after an initial trial of acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and/or tramadol.
Answer
pregabalin (or a low-dose tricyclic antidepressant


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For patients with persistent pain due to chronic pancreatitis, pregabalin (or a low-dose tricyclic antidepressant) may be offered adjunctively, as part of a step-up approach to pain management, after an initial trial of acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and/or tramadol.

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Patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease with no alarm symptoms who have a partial response to once-daily proton pump inhibitor therapy should have their dose increased to twice daily.

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Flashcard 1654890040588

Question
Patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease with no alarm symptoms who have a partial response to once-daily proton pump inhibitor therapy should have their dose increased to [...] daily.
Answer
twice


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Patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease with no alarm symptoms who have a partial response to once-daily proton pump inhibitor therapy should have their dose increased to twice daily.

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Patients with moderate to severe ulcerative colitis whose disease does not respond to oral glucocorticoids should be treated with either intravenous glucocorticoids or an anti–tumor necrosis factor agent.

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Flashcard 1654893448460

Question
Patients with moderate to severe ulcerative colitis whose disease does not respond to oral glucocorticoids should be treated with either intravenous [...]
Answer
glucocorticoids or an anti–tumor necrosis factor agent.


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Patients with moderate to severe ulcerative colitis whose disease does not respond to oral glucocorticoids should be treated with either intravenous glucocorticoids or an anti–tumor necrosis factor agent.

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The most appropriate treatment is to initiate an anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agent such as adalimumab. This patient has moderate to severe ulcerative colitis that is not responding to 60 mg/d of prednisone. Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis is often treated with oral glucocorticoids such as prednisone, 40 to 60 mg/d. Patients whose disease does not respond to oral glucocorticoids should be hospitalized and given intravenous glucocorticoids or should be treated with an anti- TNF agent. Randomized controlled clinical trials have shown three anti- TNF antibodies (infliximab, adalimumab, and golimumab) to be effective for inducing and maintaining remission in patients such as this with ulcerative colitis. Indications for hospital admission include dehydration, inability to tolerate oral intake, fever, significant abdominal tenderness, and abdominal distention

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Flashcard 1654896856332

Question
The most appropriate treatment is to initiate an anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agent such as adalimumab. This patient has moderate to severe ulcerative colitis that is not responding to 60 mg/d of prednisone. Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis is often treated with oral [...]. Patients whose disease does not respond to oral glucocorticoids should be hospitalized and given intravenous glucocorticoids or should be treated with an anti- TNF agent. Randomized controlled clinical trials have shown three anti- TNF antibodies (infliximab, adalimumab, and golimumab) to be effective for inducing and maintaining remission in patients such as this with ulcerative colitis. Indications for hospital admission include dehydration, inability to tolerate oral intake, fever, significant abdominal tenderness, and abdominal distention
Answer
glucocorticoids such as prednisone, 40 to 60 mg/d


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–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agent such as adalimumab. This patient has moderate to severe ulcerative colitis that is not responding to 60 mg/d of prednisone. Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis is often treated with oral <span>glucocorticoids such as prednisone, 40 to 60 mg/d. Patients whose disease does not respond to oral glucocorticoids should be hospitalized and given intravenous glucocorticoids or should be treated with an anti- TNF agent. Randomize

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Flashcard 1654898429196

Question
The most appropriate treatment is to initiate an anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agent such as adalimumab. This patient has moderate to severe ulcerative colitis that is not responding to 60 mg/d of prednisone. Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis is often treated with oral glucocorticoids such as prednisone, 40 to 60 mg/d. Patients whose disease does not respond to oral glucocorticoids should be hospitalized and given intravenous glucocorticoids or should be treated with an anti- TNF agent. Randomized controlled clinical trials have shown three anti- TNF antibodies ([...]) to be effective for inducing and maintaining remission in patients such as this with ulcerative colitis. Indications for hospital admission include dehydration, inability to tolerate oral intake, fever, significant abdominal tenderness, and abdominal distention
Answer
infliximab, adalimumab, and golimumab


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whose disease does not respond to oral glucocorticoids should be hospitalized and given intravenous glucocorticoids or should be treated with an anti- TNF agent. Randomized controlled clinical trials have shown three anti- TNF antibodies (<span>infliximab, adalimumab, and golimumab) to be effective for inducing and maintaining remission in patients such as this with ulcerative colitis. Indications for hospital admission include dehydration, inability

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Flashcard 1654900002060

Question
The most appropriate treatment is to initiate an anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agent such as adalimumab. This patient has moderate to severe ulcerative colitis that is not responding to 60 mg/d of prednisone. Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis is often treated with oral glucocorticoids such as prednisone, 40 to 60 mg/d. Patients whose disease does not respond to oral glucocorticoids should be hospitalized and given intravenous glucocorticoids or should be treated with an anti- TNF agent. Randomized controlled clinical trials have shown three anti- TNF antibodies (infliximab, adalimumab, and golimumab) to be effective for inducing and maintaining remission in patients such as this with ulcerative colitis. Indications for hospital admission include [...]
Answer
dehydration, inability to tolerate oral intake, fever, significant abdominal tenderness, and abdominal distention


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ials have shown three anti- TNF antibodies (infliximab, adalimumab, and golimumab) to be effective for inducing and maintaining remission in patients such as this with ulcerative colitis. Indications for hospital admission include <span>dehydration, inability to tolerate oral intake, fever, significant abdominal tenderness, and abdominal distention<span><body><html>

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Patients with mild to moderate ulcerative colitis respond well to 5- aminosalicylate agents. Patients with proctitis or left-sided colitis should receive topical therapy with a 5-aminosalicylate or hydrocortisone suppositories or enemas. If patients require repeated courses of glucocorticoids or become glucocorticoid dependent, thiopurines (6- mercaptopurine or azathioprine) or an anti-TNF agent should be initiated (methotrexate has not been shown to be effective in ulcerative colitis). Anti-TNF agents should be used in patients who do not maintain remission with thiopurines or patients whose disease is refractory to glucocorticoids. It is unlikely that 5-aminosalicylates would be beneficial in this patient with more severe disease that is refractory to prednisone

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Flashcard 1654903147788

Question
Patients with mild to moderate ulcerative colitis respond well to [...] agents. Patients with proctitis or left-sided colitis should receive topical therapy with a 5-aminosalicylate or hydrocortisone suppositories or enemas. If patients require repeated courses of glucocorticoids or become glucocorticoid dependent, thiopurines (6- mercaptopurine or azathioprine) or an anti-TNF agent should be initiated (methotrexate has not been shown to be effective in ulcerative colitis). Anti-TNF agents should be used in patients who do not maintain remission with thiopurines or patients whose disease is refractory to glucocorticoids. It is unlikely that 5-aminosalicylates would be beneficial in this patient with more severe disease that is refractory to prednisone
Answer
5- aminosalicylate


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Patients with mild to moderate ulcerative colitis respond well to 5- aminosalicylate agents. Patients with proctitis or left-sided colitis should receive topical therapy with a 5-aminosalicylate or hydrocortisone suppositories or enemas. If patients requir

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Flashcard 1654904720652

Question
Patients with mild to moderate ulcerative colitis respond well to 5- aminosalicylate agents. Patients with proctitis or left-sided colitis should receive topical therapy with a [...]. If patients require repeated courses of glucocorticoids or become glucocorticoid dependent, thiopurines (6- mercaptopurine or azathioprine) or an anti-TNF agent should be initiated (methotrexate has not been shown to be effective in ulcerative colitis). Anti-TNF agents should be used in patients who do not maintain remission with thiopurines or patients whose disease is refractory to glucocorticoids. It is unlikely that 5-aminosalicylates would be beneficial in this patient with more severe disease that is refractory to prednisone
Answer
5-aminosalicylate or hydrocortisone suppositories or enemas


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Patients with mild to moderate ulcerative colitis respond well to 5- aminosalicylate agents. Patients with proctitis or left-sided colitis should receive topical therapy with a 5-aminosalicylate or hydrocortisone suppositories or enemas. If patients require repeated courses of glucocorticoids or become glucocorticoid dependent, thiopurines (6- mercaptopurine or azathioprine) or an anti-TNF agent should be

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Flashcard 1654906293516

Question
Patients with mild to moderate ulcerative colitis respond well to 5- aminosalicylate agents. Patients with proctitis or left-sided colitis should receive topical therapy with a 5-aminosalicylate or hydrocortisone suppositories or enemas. If patients require repeated courses of glucocorticoids or become glucocorticoid dependent, [...] agent should be initiated (methotrexate has not been shown to be effective in ulcerative colitis). Anti-TNF agents should be used in patients who do not maintain remission with thiopurines or patients whose disease is refractory to glucocorticoids. It is unlikely that 5-aminosalicylates would be beneficial in this patient with more severe disease that is refractory to prednisone
Answer
thiopurines (6- mercaptopurine or azathioprine) or an anti-TNF


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ctitis or left-sided colitis should receive topical therapy with a 5-aminosalicylate or hydrocortisone suppositories or enemas. If patients require repeated courses of glucocorticoids or become glucocorticoid dependent, <span>thiopurines (6- mercaptopurine or azathioprine) or an anti-TNF agent should be initiated (methotrexate has not been shown to be effective in ulcerative colitis). Anti-TNF agents should be used in patients who do not maintain remission with thio

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Flashcard 1654907866380

Question
Patients with mild to moderate ulcerative colitis respond well to 5- aminosalicylate agents. Patients with proctitis or left-sided colitis should receive topical therapy with a 5-aminosalicylate or hydrocortisone suppositories or enemas. If patients require repeated courses of glucocorticoids or become glucocorticoid dependent, thiopurines (6- mercaptopurine or azathioprine) or an anti-TNF agent should be initiated (methotrexate has [...] shown to be effective in ulcerative colitis). Anti-TNF agents should be used in patients who do not maintain remission with thiopurines or patients whose disease is refractory to glucocorticoids. It is unlikely that 5-aminosalicylates would be beneficial in this patient with more severe disease that is refractory to prednisone
Answer
not been


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e suppositories or enemas. If patients require repeated courses of glucocorticoids or become glucocorticoid dependent, thiopurines (6- mercaptopurine or azathioprine) or an anti-TNF agent should be initiated (methotrexate has <span>not been shown to be effective in ulcerative colitis). Anti-TNF agents should be used in patients who do not maintain remission with thiopurines or patients whose disease is refractory

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In patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to peptic ulcer disease and concomitant cardiovascular disease, aspirin should be resumed within 3 to 5 days; aspirin reduces mortality tenfold over 30 days while increasing rebleeding rates only twofold.

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Flashcard 1654911012108

Question
In patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to peptic ulcer disease and concomitant cardiovascular disease, aspirin should be resumed within [...]; aspirin reduces mortality tenfold over 30 days while increasing rebleeding rates only twofold.
Answer
3 to 5 days


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In patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to peptic ulcer disease and concomitant cardiovascular disease, aspirin should be resumed within 3 to 5 days; aspirin reduces mortality tenfold over 30 days while increasing rebleeding rates only twofold.

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Serrated polyposis syndrome is associated with an increased risk of colorectal but not extraintestinal cancer; patients with serrated polyposis syndrome should undergo colonoscopy yearly.

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Flashcard 1654914157836

Question
Serrated polyposis syndrome is associated with an increased risk of colorectal but not extraintestinal cancer; patients with serrated polyposis syndrome should undergo colonoscopy [...].
Answer
yearly


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Serrated polyposis syndrome is associated with an increased risk of colorectal but not extraintestinal cancer; patients with serrated polyposis syndrome should undergo colonoscopy yearly.

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Serrated polyposis syndrome (SPS) is a familial polyposis syndrome without a known genetic cause. It is diagnosed by the World Health Organization criteria of (1) five or more serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon, two or more of which are 10 mm in diameter or greater, (2) any number of serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon in an individual with a first-degree relative who has SPS, or (3) more than 20 serrated polyps distributed throughout the colon.

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Flashcard 1654917303564

Question
Serrated polyposis syndrome (SPS) is a [...]. It is diagnosed by the World Health Organization criteria of (1) five or more serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon, two or more of which are 10 mm in diameter or greater, (2) any number of serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon in an individual with a first-degree relative who has SPS, or (3) more than 20 serrated polyps distributed throughout the colon.
Answer
familial polyposis syndrome without a known genetic cause


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Serrated polyposis syndrome (SPS) is a familial polyposis syndrome without a known genetic cause. It is diagnosed by the World Health Organization criteria of (1) five or more serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon, two or more of which are 10 mm in diameter or greater, (2

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Flashcard 1654918876428

Question
Serrated polyposis syndrome (SPS) is a familial polyposis syndrome without a known genetic cause. It is diagnosed by the World Health Organization criteria of (1) [...], (2) any number of serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon in an individual with a first-degree relative who has SPS, or (3) more than 20 serrated polyps distributed throughout the colon.
Answer
five or more serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon, two or more of which are 10 mm in diameter or greater


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Serrated polyposis syndrome (SPS) is a familial polyposis syndrome without a known genetic cause. It is diagnosed by the World Health Organization criteria of (1) five or more serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon, two or more of which are 10 mm in diameter or greater, (2) any number of serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon in an individual with a first-degree relative who has SPS, or (3) more than 20 serrated polyps distributed throughout

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Flashcard 1654920449292

Question
Serrated polyposis syndrome (SPS) is a familial polyposis syndrome without a known genetic cause. It is diagnosed by the World Health Organization criteria of (1) five or more serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon, two or more of which are 10 mm in diameter or greater, (2) [...], or (3) more than 20 serrated polyps distributed throughout the colon.
Answer
any number of serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon in an individual with a first-degree relative who has SPS


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ilial polyposis syndrome without a known genetic cause. It is diagnosed by the World Health Organization criteria of (1) five or more serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon, two or more of which are 10 mm in diameter or greater, (2) <span>any number of serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon in an individual with a first-degree relative who has SPS, or (3) more than 20 serrated polyps distributed throughout the colon.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1654922022156

Question
Serrated polyposis syndrome (SPS) is a familial polyposis syndrome without a known genetic cause. It is diagnosed by the World Health Organization criteria of (1) five or more serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon, two or more of which are 10 mm in diameter or greater, (2) any number of serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon in an individual with a first-degree relative who has SPS, or (3) [...]
Answer
more than 20 serrated polyps distributed throughout the colon.


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or more serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon, two or more of which are 10 mm in diameter or greater, (2) any number of serrated polyps proximal to the sigmoid colon in an individual with a first-degree relative who has SPS, or (3) <span>more than 20 serrated polyps distributed throughout the colon.<span><body><html>

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It is important to recognize that hyperplastic polyps are the most common type of serrated polyp and, when small and located in the rectosigmoid colon, are believed to impart no risk to the patient

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Flashcard 1654925430028

Question
It is important to recognize that [...] polyps are the most common type of serrated polyp and, when small and located in the rectosigmoid colon, are believed to impart no risk to the patient
Answer
hyperplastic


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It is important to recognize that hyperplastic polyps are the most common type of serrated polyp and, when small and located in the rectosigmoid colon, are believed to impart no risk to the patient

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Flashcard 1654927002892

Question
It is important to recognize that hyperplastic polyps are the most common type of serrated polyp and, when small and located in the [...] colon, are believed to impart no risk to the patient
Answer
rectosigmoid


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It is important to recognize that hyperplastic polyps are the most common type of serrated polyp and, when small and located in the rectosigmoid colon, are believed to impart no risk to the patient

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Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is characterized by tens to thousands of adenomatous colorectal polyps

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Flashcard 1654930410764

Question
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is characterized by tens to [...] of adenomatous colorectal polyps
Answer
thousands


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Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is characterized by tens to thousands of adenomatous colorectal polyps

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Lynch syndrome is a hereditary colon cancer syndrome caused by a germline mutation in a mismatch repair gene. Colorectal cancers in Lynch syndrome arise from adenomatous polyps. Although patients with Lynch syndrome can have numerous adenomatous polyps, it does not appear typically as a polyposis syndrome.

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Flashcard 1654933556492

Question
Lynch syndrome is a hereditary [...] syndrome caused by a germline mutation in a mismatch repair gene. Colorectal cancers in Lynch syndrome arise from adenomatous polyps. Although patients with Lynch syndrome can have numerous adenomatous polyps, it does not appear typically as a polyposis syndrome.
Answer
colon cancer


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Lynch syndrome is a hereditary colon cancer syndrome caused by a germline mutation in a mismatch repair gene. Colorectal cancers in Lynch syndrome arise from adenomatous polyps. Although patients with Lynch syndrome can have n

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Flashcard 1654935129356

Question
Lynch syndrome is a hereditary colon cancer syndrome caused by a germline mutation in a mismatch repair gene. Colorectal cancers in Lynch syndrome arise from [...] polyps. Although patients with Lynch syndrome can have numerous adenomatous polyps, it does not appear typically as a polyposis syndrome.
Answer
adenomatous


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Lynch syndrome is a hereditary colon cancer syndrome caused by a germline mutation in a mismatch repair gene. Colorectal cancers in Lynch syndrome arise from adenomatous polyps. Although patients with Lynch syndrome can have numerous adenomatous polyps, it does not appear typically as a polyposis syndrome.

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Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) is an autosomal dominant hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. The intestinal polyps in PJS are hamartomatous rather than serrated, as was seen in this patient.

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Flashcard 1654938275084

Question
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) is an autosomal [...] hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. The intestinal polyps in PJS are hamartomatous rather than serrated, as was seen in this patient.
Answer
dominant


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Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) is an autosomal dominant hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. The intestinal polyps in PJS are hamartomatous rather than serrated, as was seen in this patient.

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Flashcard 1654939847948

Question
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) is an autosomal dominant [...] syndrome. The intestinal polyps in PJS are hamartomatous rather than serrated, as was seen in this patient.
Answer
hamartomatous polyposis


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Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) is an autosomal dominant hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. The intestinal polyps in PJS are hamartomatous rather than serrated, as was seen in this patient.

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ew technologies could be utilized and developed to enhance learning, provide wider ac cess, and add more flexibility to our curricula.

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Article 1655361637644

Subject 1. Basic Definitions
#reading-10-common-probability-distributions

A probability distribution specifies the probabilities of the possible outcomes of a random variable. If you toss a coin 3 times, the possible outcomes are as follows (where H means heads and T means tails): TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, THH, HTH, HHT, HHH. In total, there are 8 possible outcomes. Of these: Only 1 (TTT) has 0 heads occurring. Three (TTH, THT and HTT) have 1 heads occurring. Three (THH, HTH and HHT) have 2 heads occurring. One (HHH) has 3 heads occurring. Thus, if x = number of heads in 3 tosses of a coin, then x = 0, 1, 2 or 3. Now, the respective probabilities are 1/8, 3/8, 3/8 and 1/8, as you have just seen. So: p(0) = p(0 Heads) = 1/8 p(1) = p(1 Head) = 3/8 p(2) = p(2 Heads) = 3/8 p(3) = p(3 Heads) = 1/8 This is a probability distribution; it records probabilities for each possible outcome of the random variable. Discrete Probability Distribution A table, graph or rule that associates a probability P(X=x i ) with each possible value x i that the discre



Flashcard 1655363210508

Tags
#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Question
A [...] specifies the probabilities of the possible outcomes of a random variable.
Answer
probability distribution


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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
A probability distribution specifies the probabilities of the possible outcomes of a random variable. If you toss a coin 3 times, the possible outcomes are as follows (where H means heads and T means tails): TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, THH, HTH, HHT, HHH. In total, ther







#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
A probability distribution specifies the probabilities of the possible outcomes of a random variable.

If you toss a coin 3 times, the possible outcomes are as follows (where H means heads and T means tails): TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, THH, HTH, HHT, HHH.

In total, there are 8 possible outcomes. Of these:

  • Only 1 (TTT) has 0 heads occurring.
  • Three (TTH, THT and HTT) have 1 heads occurring.
  • Three (THH, HTH and HHT) have 2 heads occurring.
  • One (HHH) has 3 heads occurring.
Thus, if x = number of heads in 3 tosses of a coin, then x = 0, 1, 2 or 3.

Now, the respective probabilities are 1/8, 3/8, 3/8 and 1/8, as you have just seen. So:

p(0) = p(0 Heads) = 1/8
p(1) = p(1 Head) = 3/8
p(2) = p(2 Heads) = 3/8
p(3) = p(3 Heads) = 1/8

This is a probability distribution; it records probabilities for each possible outcome of the random variable.

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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
A probability distribution specifies the probabilities of the possible outcomes of a random variable. If you toss a coin 3 times, the possible outcomes are as follows (where H means heads and T means tails): TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, THH, HTH, HHT, HHH. In total, there are 8 possible outcomes. Of these: Only 1 (TTT) has 0 heads occurring. Three (TTH, THT and HTT) have 1 heads occurring. Three (THH, HTH and HHT) have 2 heads occurring. One (HHH) has 3 heads occurring. Thus, if x = number of heads in 3 tosses of a coin, then x = 0, 1, 2 or 3. Now, the respective probabilities are 1/8, 3/8, 3/8 and 1/8, as you have just seen. So: p(0) = p(0 Heads) = 1/8 p(1) = p(1 Head) = 3/8 p(2) = p(2 Heads) = 3/8 p(3) = p(3 Heads) = 1/8 This is a probability distribution; it records probabilities for each possible outcome of the random variable. Discrete Probability Distribution A table, graph or rule that associates a probability P(X=x i ) with each possible value x i that the discrete random variabl




#reading-10-common-probability-distributions

Discrete Probability Distribution

A table, graph or rule that associates a probability P(X=xi) with each possible value xi that the discrete random variable X can assume is called a discrete probability distribution. It is a theoretical model for the relative frequency distribution of a population.

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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
= p(0 Heads) = 1/8 p(1) = p(1 Head) = 3/8 p(2) = p(2 Heads) = 3/8 p(3) = p(3 Heads) = 1/8 This is a probability distribution; it records probabilities for each possible outcome of the random variable. <span>Discrete Probability Distribution A table, graph or rule that associates a probability P(X=x i ) with each possible value x i that the discrete random variable X can assume is called a discrete probability distribution. It is a theoretical model for the relative frequency distribution of a population. A random variable is a quantity whose future outcomes are uncertain. Depending on the characteristics of the random variable, a probability distribution may be either discr




#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Depending on the characteristics of the random variable, a probability distribution may be either discrete or continuous.

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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
e random variable X can assume is called a discrete probability distribution. It is a theoretical model for the relative frequency distribution of a population. A random variable is a quantity whose future outcomes are uncertain. <span>Depending on the characteristics of the random variable, a probability distribution may be either discrete or continuous. A discrete variable is one that cannot take on all values within the limits of the variable. It can assume only a countable number of possible values. For example, response




#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
A discrete variable is one that cannot take on all values within the limits of the variable. It can assume only a countable number of possible values. For example, responses to a five-point rating scale can only take on the values 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. The variable cannot have the value 1.7. The variable "number of correct answers on a 100-point multiple-choice test" is also a discrete variable since it is not possible to get 54.12 problems correct. The number of movies you will see this year, the number of trades a broker will perform next month, and the number of securities in a portfolio are all examples of discrete variables.

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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
ribution of a population. A random variable is a quantity whose future outcomes are uncertain. Depending on the characteristics of the random variable, a probability distribution may be either discrete or continuous. <span>A discrete variable is one that cannot take on all values within the limits of the variable. It can assume only a countable number of possible values. For example, responses to a five-point rating scale can only take on the values 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. The variable cannot have the value 1.7. The variable "number of correct answers on a 100-point multiple-choice test" is also a discrete variable since it is not possible to get 54.12 problems correct. The number of movies you will see this year, the number of trades a broker will perform next month, and the number of securities in a portfolio are all examples of discrete variables. A continuous variable is one within the limits of variable ranges for which any value is possible. The number of possible values cannot be counted, and, as you will see lat




#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
A continuous variable is one within the limits of variable ranges for which any value is possible. The number of possible values cannot be counted, and, as you will see later, each individual value has zero probability associated with it. For example, the variable "time to solve an anagram problem" is continuous since it could take 2 minutes or 2.13 minutes, etc., to finish a problem. A variable such as a person's height can take on any value as well. The rate of return on an asset is also a continuous random variable since the exact value of the rate of return depends on the desired number of decimal spaces.

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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
s not possible to get 54.12 problems correct. The number of movies you will see this year, the number of trades a broker will perform next month, and the number of securities in a portfolio are all examples of discrete variables. <span>A continuous variable is one within the limits of variable ranges for which any value is possible. The number of possible values cannot be counted, and, as you will see later, each individual value has zero probability associated with it. For example, the variable "time to solve an anagram problem" is continuous since it could take 2 minutes or 2.13 minutes, etc., to finish a problem. A variable such as a person's height can take on any value as well. The rate of return on an asset is also a continuous random variable since the exact value of the rate of return depends on the desired number of decimal spaces. Statistics computed from discrete variables are continuous. The mean on a five-point scale could be 3.117 even though 3.117 is not possible for an individual score. &




Flashcard 1655389687052

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#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Question
Are the statistics computed from discrete variables continuous or discrete?
Answer
Continuous


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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
A variable such as a person's height can take on any value as well. The rate of return on an asset is also a continuous random variable since the exact value of the rate of return depends on the desired number of decimal spaces. <span>Statistics computed from discrete variables are continuous. The mean on a five-point scale could be 3.117 even though 3.117 is not possible for an individual score. For any random variable, it is necessary to know two things:







Flashcard 1655394143500

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Question

For any random variable, it is necessary to know two things:

  • the list of all possible values that the random variable can take on.
  • the [...] .
Answer
probability of each value occurring


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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
rn depends on the desired number of decimal spaces. Statistics computed from discrete variables are continuous. The mean on a five-point scale could be 3.117 even though 3.117 is not possible for an individual score. <span>For any random variable, it is necessary to know two things: the list of all possible values that the random variable can take on. the probability of each value occurring. These give a probability distribution. The first item on the list is called the range. With regard to the range of possible outcomes of a specified random variable: &#







Flashcard 1655402007820

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#reading-10-common-probability-distributions
Question
The list of all possible values that the random variable can take on is called [...]
Answer
The range


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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
s computed from discrete variables are continuous. The mean on a five-point scale could be 3.117 even though 3.117 is not possible for an individual score. For any random variable, it is necessary to know two things: <span>the list of all possible values that the random variable can take on. the probability of each value occurring. These give a probability distribution. The first item on the list is called the range. With regard to the range of possible o







#reading-10-common-probability-distributions

With regard to the range of possible outcomes of a specified random variable:

  • Sometimes the possible values of a random variable have both lower and upper bounds. For example, there are three possible values of the number of heads showing face-up on two tosses of a coin: 0, 1, and 2. Therefore, the lower bound is 0 and the upper bound is 2.

  • Sometimes the lower bound exists, but the upper bound does not. For example, the lower bound of the price of a stock is 0, since it cannot fall below 0. However, there is no upper bound on the price (at least theoretically).

  • Sometimes the upper bound exists, but the lower bound does not. Consider the profit or loss of the seller of a call option. Suppose the buyer pays the seller $2 to buy a call option, which gives the buyer the right to buy a stock at $10 by the end of 2006. The maximum profit the seller can make is $2, but the maximum loss the seller may incur is unlimited since there is no upper bound on the possible values of stock prices.

  • In other cases, neither bound is obvious. Consider the profit or loss of a big company. In a good year, profits could be as high as dozens of billions of dollars, losses could be equivalent in a very bad year.

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Subject 1. Basic Definitions
w two things: the list of all possible values that the random variable can take on. the probability of each value occurring. These give a probability distribution. The first item on the list is called the range. <span>With regard to the range of possible outcomes of a specified random variable: Sometimes the possible values of a random variable have both lower and upper bounds. For example, there are three possible values of the number of heads showing face-up on two tosses of a coin: 0, 1, and 2. Therefore, the lower bound is 0 and the upper bound is 2. Sometimes the lower bound exists, but the upper bound does not. For example, the lower bound of the price of a stock is 0, since it cannot fall below 0. However, there is no upper bound on the price (at least theoretically). Sometimes the upper bound exists, but the lower bound does not. Consider the profit or loss of the seller of a call option. Suppose the buyer pays the seller $2 to buy a call option, which gives the buyer the right to buy a stock at $10 by the end of 2006. The maximum profit the seller can make is $2, but the maximum loss the seller may incur is unlimited since there is no upper bound on the possible values of stock prices. In other cases, neither bound is obvious. Consider the profit or loss of a big company. In a good year, profits could be as high as dozens of billions of dollars, losses could be equivalent in a very bad year. <span><body><html>