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I think it is very important to make the link between the muf.zdathun and the Arabic modernist project, to bring Abbasid poets such as Abu Tammiim, Ibn al-R1lmi, al-Bul).turi, and certainly the later al-Mutanabbi into the discussion of Arabic poetry and its directions today.
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Flashcard 1626668403980

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
The holding period return for an asset can be calculated for any [...]
Answer
time period (day, week, month, or year)

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Subject 2. Holding Period Return
period t is the capital gain (or loss) plus distributions divided by the beginning-of-period price (dividend yield). Note that for common stocks the distribution is the dividend; for bonds, the distribution is the coupon payment. <span>The holding period return for any asset can be calculated for any time period (day, week, month, or year) simply by changing the interpretation of the time interval. Return can be expressed in decimals (0.05), fractions (5/100), or as a percent (5%). These are all equivalent. &







Flashcard 1632002510092

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
When calculating the Time Weighted rate of return if the measurement period < 1 year, [...] to get an annualized rate of return for the year.
Answer
compound holding period returns

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Subject 3. Dollar-weighted and Time-weighted Rates of Return
sub-period: HPR = (Dividends + Ending Price)/Beginning Price - 1. For the first year, HPR 1 : (150 + 10)/100 - 1 = 0.60. For the second year, HPR 2 : (280 + 20)/300 - 1 = 0. Calculate the time-weighted rate of return: <span>If the measurement period < 1 year, compound holding period returns to get an annualized rate of return for the year. If the measurement period > 1 year, take the geometric mean of the annual returns. <span><body><html>







Flashcard 1632883051788

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#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
Bank discount yield is not a meaningful measure of the return on investment because:
  • It is based on the face value , not on the purchase price.
  • It is annualized using a 360-day year, not a 365-day year.
  • It [...]
Answer
annualizes with simple interest

ignores the effect of interest on interest (compound interest).

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Subject 4. Different Yield Measures of a U.S. Treasury Bill
unt basis D = the dollar discount, which is equal to the difference between the face value of the bill, F, and its purchase price, P t = the number of days remaining to maturity 360 = the bank convention of the number of days in a year. <span>Bank discount yield is not a meaningful measure of the return on investment because: It is based on the face value, not on the purchase price. Instead, return on investment should be measured based on cost of investment. It is annualized using a 360-day year, not a 365-day year. It annualizes with simple interest and ignores the effect of interest on interest (compound interest). Holding period yield (HPY) is the return earned by an investor if the money market instrument is held until maturity: P 0 =







Flashcard 1633376668940

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
If we know HPY, then:
  • rMM = [...]
Answer
HPY x 360/t

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Subject 4. Different Yield Measures of a U.S. Treasury Bill
990. Bank discount yield: (1000 - 990)/1000 x 360/60 = 6% Holding period yield: (1000 - 990)/990 = 1.0101% Effective annual yield: (1 + 1.0101%) 365/60 - 1 = 6.3047% Money market yield: (360 x 6%)/(360 - 60 x 6%) = 6.0606% <span>If we know HPY, then: EAY = (1 + HPY) 365/t - 1 r MM = HPY x 360/t If we know EAY, then: HPY = ( 1 + EAY) t/365 - 1 r MM = [(1 + EAY) t/365 - 1] x (360/t) If we know r MM , then: HPY = r MM x (t/360) EAY = (1 + r







Flashcard 1633413631244

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
If we know rMM, then:
  • HPY = [...]
Answer
rMM x (t/360)

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Subject 4. Different Yield Measures of a U.S. Treasury Bill
ld: (360 x 6%)/(360 - 60 x 6%) = 6.0606% If we know HPY, then: EAY = (1 + HPY) 365/t - 1 r MM = HPY x 360/t If we know EAY, then: HPY = ( 1 + EAY) t/365 - 1 r MM = [(1 + EAY) t/365 - 1] x (360/t) <span>If we know r MM , then: HPY = r MM x (t/360) EAY = (1 + r MM x t/360) 365/t - 1 <span><body><html>







Flashcard 1633419398412

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
If we know rMM, then:
  • EAY = ( [...] )365/t - 1
Answer
1 + rMM x t/360

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Subject 4. Different Yield Measures of a U.S. Treasury Bill
ld: (360 x 6%)/(360 - 60 x 6%) = 6.0606% If we know HPY, then: EAY = (1 + HPY) 365/t - 1 r MM = HPY x 360/t If we know EAY, then: HPY = ( 1 + EAY) t/365 - 1 r MM = [(1 + EAY) t/365 - 1] x (360/t) <span>If we know r MM , then: HPY = r MM x (t/360) EAY = (1 + r MM x t/360) 365/t - 1 <span><body><html>







Subject 5. Bond Equivalent Yield
#has-images #reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications

Periodic bond yields for both straight and zero-coupon bonds are conventionally computed based on semi-annual periods, as U.S. bonds typically make two coupon payments per year. For example, a zero-coupon bond with a maturity of five years will mature in 10 6-month periods. The periodic yield for that bond, r, is indicated by the equation Price = Maturity value x (1 + r)-10. This yield is an internal rate of return with semi-annual compounding. How do we annualize it?

The convention is to double it and call the result the bond's yield to maturity. This method ignores the effect of compounding semi-annual YTM, and the YTM calculated in this way is called a bond-equivalent yield (BEY).

However, yields of a semi-annual-pay and an annual-pay bond cannot be compared directly without conversion. This conversion can be done in one of the two ways:

  • Convert the bond-equivalent yield of a semi-annual-pay bond to an annual-pay bond.

  • Convert the equivalent annual yield of an annual-pay bond to a bond-equivalent yield.

Example
  • A Eurobond pays coupon annually. It has an annual-pay YTM of 8%.
  • A U.S. corporate bond pays coupon semi-annually. It has a bond equivalent YTM of 7.8%.
  • Which bond is more attractive, if all other factors are equal?
Solution 1
  • Convert the U.S. corporate bond's bond equivalent yield to an annual-pay yield:
  • Annual-pay yield = [1 + 0.078/2]2 - 1 = 7.95% < 8%
  • The Eurobond is more attractive since it offers a higher annual-pay yield.
Solution 2
  • Convert the Eurobond's annual-pay yield to a bond equivalent yield (BEY):
  • BEY = 2 x [(1 + 0.08)0.5 - 1] = 7.85% > 7.8%
  • The Eurobond is more attractive since it offers a higher bond equivalent yield.
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A zero-coupon bond is a debt security that doesn't pay interest (a coupon) but is traded at a deep discount, rendering profit at maturity when the bond is redeemed for its full face value.
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Zero-Coupon Bond
What is a 'Zero-Coupon Bond' <span>A zero-coupon bond, also known as an "accrual bond," is a debt security that doesn't pay interest (a coupon) but is traded at a deep discount, rendering profit at maturity when the bond is redeemed for its full face value. Some zero-coupon bonds are issued as such, while others are bonds that have been stripped of their coupons by a financial institution and then repackaged as zero-coupon bonds. Because t




Flashcard 1633769622796

Question
A zero-coupon bond is also known as an [...]
Answer
"accrual bond,"

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A zero-coupon bond, also known as an "accrual bond," is a debt security that doesn't pay interest (a coupon) but is traded at a deep discount, rendering profit at maturity when the bond is redeemed for its full face value.</

Original toplevel document

Zero-Coupon Bond
What is a 'Zero-Coupon Bond' <span>A zero-coupon bond, also known as an "accrual bond," is a debt security that doesn't pay interest (a coupon) but is traded at a deep discount, rendering profit at maturity when the bond is redeemed for its full face value. Some zero-coupon bonds are issued as such, while others are bonds that have been stripped of their coupons by a financial institution and then repackaged as zero-coupon bonds. Because t







Flashcard 1633798982924

Question
A zero-coupon bond is a debt security that doesn't [...] but is traded at a [...]
Answer
pay interest (a coupon)

deep discount.

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A zero-coupon bond is a debt security that doesn't pay interest (a coupon) but is traded at a deep discount, rendering profit at maturity when the bond is redeemed for its full face value.

Original toplevel document

Zero-Coupon Bond
What is a 'Zero-Coupon Bond' <span>A zero-coupon bond, also known as an "accrual bond," is a debt security that doesn't pay interest (a coupon) but is traded at a deep discount, rendering profit at maturity when the bond is redeemed for its full face value. Some zero-coupon bonds are issued as such, while others are bonds that have been stripped of their coupons by a financial institution and then repackaged as zero-coupon bonds. Because t







Flashcard 1633823362316

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
Periodic bond yields for both straight and zero-coupon bonds are conventionally computed based on [...]
Answer
semi-annual periods

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Subject 5. Bond Equivalent Yield
Periodic bond yields for both straight and zero-coupon bonds are conventionally computed based on semi-annual periods, as U.S. bonds typically make two coupon payments per year. For example, a zero-coupon bond with a maturity of five years will mature in 10 6-month periods. The periodic yield for that







Flashcard 1633877101836

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
A zero-coupon bond with a maturity of five years will mature in [...] periods.
Answer
10 6-month

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Subject 5. Bond Equivalent Yield
Periodic bond yields for both straight and zero-coupon bonds are conventionally computed based on semi-annual periods, as U.S. bonds typically make two coupon payments per year. For example, a zero-coupon bond with a maturity of five years will mature in 10 6-month periods. The periodic yield for that bond, r, is indicated by the equation Price = Maturity value x (1 + r) -10 . This yield is an internal rate of return with semi-annual compounding. How do we







Flashcard 1633900432652

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
The periodic yield for a zero coupon bond that matures in 5 years, r, is indicated by the equation Price = [...] .
Answer
Maturity value x (1 + r)-10

This yield is an internal rate of return with semi-annual compounding.

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Subject 5. Bond Equivalent Yield
raight and zero-coupon bonds are conventionally computed based on semi-annual periods, as U.S. bonds typically make two coupon payments per year. For example, a zero-coupon bond with a maturity of five years will mature in 10 6-month periods. <span>The periodic yield for that bond, r, is indicated by the equation Price = Maturity value x (1 + r) -10 . This yield is an internal rate of return with semi-annual compounding. How do we annualize it? The convention is to double it and call the result the bond's yield to maturit







prehypertension as a systolic blood pressure of 120-139 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mm Hg in the absence of preexisting end-organ disease (for example, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovascular disease)
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Flashcard 1633971997964

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
yields of a semi-annual-pay and an annual-pay bond cannot be compared directly without [...]
Answer
conversion.

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Subject 5. Bond Equivalent Yield
The convention is to double it and call the result the bond's yield to maturity. This method ignores the effect of compounding semi-annual YTM, and the YTM calculated in this way is called a bond-equivalent yield (BEY). However, <span>yields of a semi-annual-pay and an annual-pay bond cannot be compared directly without conversion. This conversion can be done in one of the two ways: Convert the bond-equivalent yield of a semi-annual-pay bond to an annual-pay bond.







Flashcard 1633989037324

Tags
#has-images #reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
Convert the bond-equivalent yield of a semi-annual-pay bond to an annual-pay bond.

Annual-Pay Yield of a Semiannual-Pay Bond = [...]

Answer

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Subject 5. Bond Equivalent Yield
ted in this way is called a bond-equivalent yield (BEY). However, yields of a semi-annual-pay and an annual-pay bond cannot be compared directly without conversion. This conversion can be done in one of the two ways: <span>Convert the bond-equivalent yield of a semi-annual-pay bond to an annual-pay bond. Convert the equivalent annual yield of an annual-pay bond to a bond-equivalent yield. Example &#13







Flashcard 1634018135308

Tags
#has-images #reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
Convert the equivalent annual yield of an annual-pay bond to a bond-equivalent yield.


BEY of an Annual-Pay Bond = [...]

Answer

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Subject 5. Bond Equivalent Yield
cannot be compared directly without conversion. This conversion can be done in one of the two ways: Convert the bond-equivalent yield of a semi-annual-pay bond to an annual-pay bond. <span>Convert the equivalent annual yield of an annual-pay bond to a bond-equivalent yield. Example A Eurobond pays coupon annually. It has an annual-pay YTM of 8%. A U.S. corporate bond pays coupon semi-annually. It has a bond e







Flashcard 1634082884876

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
U.S. bonds typically make [...] payments per year.
Answer
two coupon

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Subject 5. Bond Equivalent Yield
Periodic bond yields for both straight and zero-coupon bonds are conventionally computed based on semi-annual periods, as U.S. bonds typically make two coupon payments per year. For example, a zero-coupon bond with a maturity of five years will mature in 10 6-month periods. The periodic yield for that bond, r, is indicated by the equation Price = Maturity value







Flashcard 1634085244172

Tags
#reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question
What is the quickest way to convert BEY to YTM?
Answer
Convertir interes nominal a efectivo en la calculadora

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Subject 5. Bond Equivalent Yield
y. This method ignores the effect of compounding semi-annual YTM, and the YTM calculated in this way is called a bond-equivalent yield (BEY). However, yields of a semi-annual-pay and an annual-pay bond cannot be compared directly <span>without conversion. This conversion can be done in one of the two ways: Convert the bond-equivalent yield of a semi-annual-pay bond to an annual-pay bond.







prehypertension as a systolic blood pressure of 120-139 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mm Hg in the absence of preexisting end-organ disease (for example, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovascular disease).
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prehypertension as a systolic blood pressure of 120-139 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mm Hg in the absence of preexisting end-organ disease (for example, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovascular disease)
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Flashcard 1634091273484

Question
prehypertension as a systolic blood pressure of [...] mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mm Hg in the absence of preexisting end-organ disease (for example, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovascular disease)
Answer
120-139

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prehypertension as a systolic blood pressure of 120-139 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mm Hg in the absence of preexisting end-organ disease (for example, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovasc

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Flashcard 1634092846348

Question
prehypertension as a systolic blood pressure of 120-139 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of [...] mm Hg in the absence of preexisting end-organ disease (for example, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovascular disease)
Answer
80-89

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prehypertension as a systolic blood pressure of 120-139 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mm Hg in the absence of preexisting end-organ disease (for example, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovascular disease)

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Flashcard 1634094419212

Question
prehypertension as a systolic blood pressure of 120-139 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mm Hg in the absence of [...] (for example, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovascular disease)
Answer
preexisting end-organ disease

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prehypertension as a systolic blood pressure of 120-139 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mm Hg in the absence of preexisting end-organ disease (for example, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovascular disease)

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Appropriate follow-up for those with prehypertension occurs at annual visits.
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Flashcard 1634097564940

Question
Appropriate follow-up for those with prehypertension occurs at [...] visits.
Answer
annual

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Appropriate follow-up for those with prehypertension occurs at annual visits.

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If blood pressures measuring 140/90 mm Hg or greater were documented, this would require repeat measurements for at least three visits over the period of at least 1 week of more to establish a diagnosis of hypertension
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Flashcard 1634100710668

Question
If blood pressures measuring 140/90 mm Hg or greater were documented, this would require repeat measurements for at least [...] over the period of at least 1 week of more to establish a diagnosis of hypertension
Answer
three visits

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If blood pressures measuring 140/90 mm Hg or greater were documented, this would require repeat measurements for at least three visits over the period of at least 1 week of more to establish a diagnosis of hypertension

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Flashcard 1634102545676

Question
If blood pressures measuring 140/90 mm Hg or greater were documented, this would require repeat measurements for at least three visits over the period of at least [...] of more to establish a diagnosis of hypertension
Answer
1 week

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If blood pressures measuring 140/90 mm Hg or greater were documented, this would require repeat measurements for at least three visits over the period of at least 1 week of more to establish a diagnosis of hypertension

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Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring records blood pressures periodically during normal activities. It is indicated primarily for diagnosis of suspected white coat hypertension (persistently elevated blood pressure readings in the office without evidence of end-organ damage) or to confirm a poor response to antihypertensive medication. It may also be useful in assessing for masked hypertension (evidence of end-organ damage without apparent elevated blood pressures) or for evaluating episodic or resistant hypertension.
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Flashcard 1634105691404

Question
Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring records blood pressures periodically during normal activities. It is indicated primarily for diagnosis of suspected [...] (persistently elevated blood pressure readings in the office without evidence of end-organ damage) or to confirm a poor response to antihypertensive medication. It may also be useful in assessing for masked hypertension (evidence of end-organ damage without apparent elevated blood pressures) or for evaluating episodic or resistant hypertension.
Answer
white coat hypertension

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Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring records blood pressures periodically during normal activities. It is indicated primarily for diagnosis of suspected white coat hypertension (persistently elevated blood pressure readings in the office without evidence of end-organ damage) or to confirm a poor response to antihypertensive medication. It may also be useful

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Flashcard 1634107264268

Question
Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring records blood pressures periodically during normal activities. It is indicated primarily for diagnosis of suspected white coat hypertension (persistently elevated blood pressure readings in the office without evidence of end-organ damage) or to confirm [...]. It may also be useful in assessing for masked hypertension (evidence of end-organ damage without apparent elevated blood pressures) or for evaluating episodic or resistant hypertension.
Answer
a poor response to antihypertensive medication

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pressures periodically during normal activities. It is indicated primarily for diagnosis of suspected white coat hypertension (persistently elevated blood pressure readings in the office without evidence of end-organ damage) or to confirm <span>a poor response to antihypertensive medication. It may also be useful in assessing for masked hypertension (evidence of end-organ damage without apparent elevated blood pressures) or for evaluating episodic or resistant hypertens

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Flashcard 1634108837132

Question
Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring records blood pressures periodically during normal activities. It is indicated primarily for diagnosis of suspected white coat hypertension (persistently elevated blood pressure readings in the office without evidence of end-organ damage) or to confirm a poor response to antihypertensive medication. It may also be useful in assessing for [...] (evidence of end-organ damage without apparent elevated blood pressures) or for evaluating episodic or resistant hypertension.
Answer
masked hypertension

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s of suspected white coat hypertension (persistently elevated blood pressure readings in the office without evidence of end-organ damage) or to confirm a poor response to antihypertensive medication. It may also be useful in assessing for <span>masked hypertension (evidence of end-organ damage without apparent elevated blood pressures) or for evaluating episodic or resistant hypertension.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634110672140

Question
Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring records blood pressures periodically during normal activities. It is indicated primarily for diagnosis of suspected white coat hypertension (persistently elevated blood pressure readings in the office without evidence of end-organ damage) or to confirm a poor response to antihypertensive medication. It may also be useful in assessing for masked hypertension (evidence of end-organ damage without apparent elevated blood pressures) or for evaluating episodic or [...]
Answer
resistant hypertension.

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d-organ damage) or to confirm a poor response to antihypertensive medication. It may also be useful in assessing for masked hypertension (evidence of end-organ damage without apparent elevated blood pressures) or for evaluating episodic or <span>resistant hypertension.<span><body><html>

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This patient has risk factors for CIN (older age, elevated serum creatinine, diabetes mellitus)
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Flashcard 1634113817868

Question
risk factors for CIN
Answer
[default - edit me]

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This patient has risk factors for CIN (older age, elevated serum creatinine, diabetes mellitus)

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Flashcard 1634114866444

Question
(older age, elevated serum creatinine, diabetes mellitus)
Answer
(older age, elevated serum creatinine, diabetes mellitus)

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This patient has risk factors for CIN (older age, elevated serum creatinine, diabetes mellitus)

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Flashcard 1634115915020

Question
risk factors for CIN
Answer
(older age, elevated serum creatinine, diabetes mellitus)

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This patient has risk factors for CIN (older age, elevated serum creatinine, diabetes mellitus)

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The use of gadolinium in MRI studies is relatively contraindicated in patients with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2due to the increased risk of NSF.
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Flashcard 1634119060748

Question
The use of gadolinium in MRI studies is [...] in patients with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2due to the increased risk of NSF.
Answer
relatively contraindicated

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The use of gadolinium in MRI studies is relatively contraindicated in patients with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2due to the increased risk of NSF.

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Flashcard 1634120633612

Question
The use of gadolinium in MRI studies is relatively contraindicated in patients with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of [...]due to the increased risk of NSF.
Answer
less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2

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The use of gadolinium in MRI studies is relatively contraindicated in patients with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2due to the increased risk of NSF.

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Flashcard 1634122206476

Question
The use of gadolinium in MRI studies is relatively contraindicated in patients with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2due to the increased risk of [...]
Answer
NSF.

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The use of gadolinium in MRI studies is relatively contraindicated in patients with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2due to the increased risk of NSF.

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#duchowy #formacja #psychologia #rozwojowa #rozwój #wychowanie #wzrost
Znajdź ludzi, którzy będą wspierać twoją zdolność do stawiania oporu, posiadania własnej opinii, podejmowania ryzyka i stawania się sobą. Od tego „bezpiecznego horyzontu wspierających cię przyjaciół” możesz rozpocząć proces dorastania.
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#duchowy #formacja #psychologia #rozwojowa #rozwój #wychowanie #wzrost
aby być napraw- dę dorosłym, stanąć na równi z mamą, musisz mieć własne sądy o świecie.
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r many of us, as for Dikmen's Turkish narrator, the culture that we are teaching is also foreign;
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literary pragmatics, an inter- disciplinary area of literary linguistic study that ap- proaches literary works as social acts of interactive communication, can be used in the intermediate to advanced language classroom in order to promote critical linguistic awareness.1
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Balkan endemic nephropathy (BEN) and is at increased risk for transitional cell carcinoma.
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Flashcard 1634171751692

Question
Balkan endemic nephropathy (BEN) and is at increased risk for [...]
Answer
transitional cell carcinoma.

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Balkan endemic nephropathy (BEN) and is at increased risk for transitional cell carcinoma.

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BEN is a slowly progressive tubulointerstitial disease that has recently been linked to aristolochic acid.
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Flashcard 1634174897420

Question
BEN is a slowly progressive tubulointerstitial disease that has recently been linked to [...]
Answer
aristolochic acid.

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BEN is a slowly progressive tubulointerstitial disease that has recently been linked to aristolochic acid.

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Free hemoglobin is partially bound by haptoglobin but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy. Similar findings on urinalysis will also occur with the release of myoglobin into the circulation, usually from muscle injury (rhabdomyolysis). Myoglobin is a small molecule relative to hemoglobin, is not bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine. It also reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick indicating blood, although microscopic examination will also be negative for erythrocytes.
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Flashcard 1634178043148

Question
Free hemoglobin is partially bound by [...] but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy. Similar findings on urinalysis will also occur with the release of myoglobin into the circulation, usually from muscle injury (rhabdomyolysis). Myoglobin is a small molecule relative to hemoglobin, is not bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine. It also reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick indicating blood, although microscopic examination will also be negative for erythrocytes.
Answer
haptoglobin

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Free hemoglobin is partially bound by haptoglobin but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is

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Flashcard 1634179878156

Question
Free hemoglobin is partially bound by haptoglobin but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by [...]. Similar findings on urinalysis will also occur with the release of myoglobin into the circulation, usually from muscle injury (rhabdomyolysis). Myoglobin is a small molecule relative to hemoglobin, is not bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine. It also reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick indicating blood, although microscopic examination will also be negative for erythrocytes.
Answer
the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy

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nd by haptoglobin but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by <span>the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy. Similar findings on urinalysis will also occur with the release of myoglobin into the circulation, usually from muscle injury (rhabdomyolysis). Myoglobin is a small molecule

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Flashcard 1634181451020

Question
Free hemoglobin is partially bound by haptoglobin but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy. Similar findings on urinalysis will also occur with the release of myoglobin into the circulation, usually from muscle injury [...]. Myoglobin is a small molecule relative to hemoglobin, is not bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine. It also reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick indicating blood, although microscopic examination will also be negative for erythrocytes.
Answer
(rhabdomyolysis)

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d. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy. Similar findings on urinalysis will also occur with the release of myoglobin into the circulation, usually from muscle injury <span>(rhabdomyolysis). Myoglobin is a small molecule relative to hemoglobin, is not bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine

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Flashcard 1634183023884

Question
Free hemoglobin is partially bound by haptoglobin but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with [...] in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy. Similar findings on urinalysis will also occur with the release of myoglobin into the circulation, usually from muscle injury (rhabdomyolysis). Myoglobin is a small molecule relative to hemoglobin, is not bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine. It also reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick indicating blood, although microscopic examination will also be negative for erythrocytes.
Answer
peroxidase

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Free hemoglobin is partially bound by haptoglobin but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy. Similar find

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Flashcard 1634184596748

Question
Free hemoglobin is partially bound by haptoglobin but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy. Similar findings on urinalysis will also occur with the release of myoglobin into the circulation, usually from muscle injury (rhabdomyolysis). Myoglobin is a small molecule relative to hemoglobin, is not bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine. It also reacts with [...] in the urine dipstick indicating blood, although microscopic examination will also be negative for erythrocytes.
Answer
peroxidase

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m muscle injury (rhabdomyolysis). Myoglobin is a small molecule relative to hemoglobin, is not bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine. It also reacts with <span>peroxidase in the urine dipstick indicating blood, although microscopic examination will also be negative for erythrocytes.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634186169612

Question
Free hemoglobin is partially bound by haptoglobin but may also be filtered into the urine, producing a red color. Heme reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick, causing a false-positive result for blood. Hemoglobinuria is distinguished from true hematuria by the absence of erythrocytes on urine microscopy. Similar findings on urinalysis will also occur with the release of myoglobin into the circulation, usually from muscle injury (rhabdomyolysis). Myoglobin is a small molecule relative to hemoglobin, is not bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine. It also reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick indicating blood, although microscopic examination will also be [...] for erythrocytes.
Answer
negative

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bound within the circulation by haptoglobin, and is readily filtered through the kidneys, resulting in red-colored urine. It also reacts with peroxidase in the urine dipstick indicating blood, although microscopic examination will also be <span>negative for erythrocytes.<span><body><html>

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MKSAP17 MCQ 1646 .Mustafa M. A Bladder cancer is a concern in a patient with a significant smoking history presenting with a finding of red urine. However, the urine color change in bladder cancer is due to bleeding into the urinary tract, and erythrocytes would be seen on urinalysis.
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Flashcard 1634189577484

Question
MKSAP17 MCQ 1646 .Mustafa M. A Bladder cancer is a concern in a patient with a significant [...] presenting with a finding of red urine. However, the urine color change in bladder cancer is due to bleeding into the urinary tract, and erythrocytes would be seen on urinalysis.
Answer
smoking history

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MKSAP17 MCQ 1646 .Mustafa M. A Bladder cancer is a concern in a patient with a significant smoking history presenting with a finding of red urine. However, the urine color change in bladder cancer is due to bleeding into the urinary tract, and erythrocytes would be seen on urinalysis. </s

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Flashcard 1634191150348

Question
MKSAP17 MCQ 1646 .Mustafa M. A Bladder cancer is a concern in a patient with a significant smoking history presenting with a finding of red urine. However, the urine color change in bladder cancer is due to bleeding into the urinary tract, and erythrocytes would be [...] on urinalysis.
Answer
seen

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A Bladder cancer is a concern in a patient with a significant smoking history presenting with a finding of red urine. However, the urine color change in bladder cancer is due to bleeding into the urinary tract, and erythrocytes would be <span>seen on urinalysis. <span><body><html>

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MKSAP17 MCQ 1646 .Mustafa M. A Bladder cancer is a concern in a patient with a significant smoking history presenting with a finding of red urine. However, the urine color change in bladder cancer is due to bleeding into the urinary tract, and erythrocytes would be seen on urinalysis. Glomerulonephritis may be associated with bleeding into the urine and would be suspected if erythrocytes, particularly acanthocytes (dysmorphic erythrocytes), were found on urine microscopic examination. Proteinuria may also be found in glomerulonephritis,
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Glomerulonephritis may be associated with bleeding into the urine and would be suspected if erythrocytes, particularly acanthocytes (dysmorphic erythrocytes), were found on urine microscopic examination. Proteinuria may also be found in glomerulonephritis,
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Flashcard 1634197179660

Question
Glomerulonephritis may be associated with bleeding into the urine and would be suspected if erythrocytes, particularly [...] (dysmorphic erythrocytes), were found on urine microscopic examination. Proteinuria may also be found in glomerulonephritis,
Answer
acanthocytes

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Glomerulonephritis may be associated with bleeding into the urine and would be suspected if erythrocytes, particularly acanthocytes (dysmorphic erythrocytes), were found on urine microscopic examination. Proteinuria may also be found in glomerulonephritis,

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Flashcard 1634198752524

Question
Glomerulonephritis may be associated with bleeding into the urine and would be suspected if erythrocytes, particularly acanthocytes (dysmorphic erythrocytes), were found on urine microscopic examination. [...] may also be found in glomerulonephritis,
Answer
Proteinuria

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Glomerulonephritis may be associated with bleeding into the urine and would be suspected if erythrocytes, particularly acanthocytes (dysmorphic erythrocytes), were found on urine microscopic examination. Proteinuria may also be found in glomerulonephritis,

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definition of resistant hypertension, which is defined by blood pressure readings not at target despite three agents, one of which must be a diuretic.
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Flashcard 1634202946828

Question
resistant hypertension
Answer
defined by blood pressure readings not at target despite three agents, one of which must be a diuretic.

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definition of resistant hypertension, which is defined by blood pressure readings not at target despite three agents, one of which must be a diuretic.

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Chlorthalidone is often preferred over other thiazide-type diuretics primarily due to its higher potency and longer duration of action.
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Flashcard 1634206092556

Question
Chlorthalidone is often preferred over other thiazide-type diuretics primarily due to its [...]
Answer
higher potency and longer duration of action.

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Chlorthalidone is often preferred over other thiazide-type diuretics primarily due to its higher potency and longer duration of action.

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minoxidil promotes sodium retention and is almost always given with a diuretic.
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Flashcard 1634209500428

Question
minoxidil promotes [...] and is almost always given with a diuretic.
Answer
sodium retention

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minoxidil promotes sodium retention and is almost always given with a diuretic.

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Flashcard 1634211073292

Question
minoxidil promotes sodium retention and is almost always given with a [...]
Answer
diuretic.

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minoxidil promotes sodium retention and is almost always given with a diuretic.

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In amyloidosis involving the kidney, glomerular lesions tend to be prominent and present with proteinuria, often in the nephrotic range.
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Flashcard 1634215791884

Question
In amyloidosis involving the kidney, glomerular lesions tend to be prominent and present with [...], often in the nephrotic range.
Answer
proteinuria

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In amyloidosis involving the kidney, glomerular lesions tend to be prominent and present with proteinuria, often in the nephrotic range.

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amyloid resulting from monoclonal lambda or kappa light chains is termed AL amyloid
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Flashcard 1634219724044

Question
AL amyloid
Answer
amyloid resulting from monoclonal lambda or kappa light chains

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amyloid resulting from monoclonal lambda or kappa light chains is termed AL amyloid

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AL amyloid may present with nonspecific systemic symptoms such as fatigue or weight loss, but most commonly presents with symptoms associated with infiltration of different organ systems. These may include restrictive cardiomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and, less commonly, cutaneous purpura and macroglossia
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Flashcard 1634222869772

Question
AL amyloid may present with nonspecific systemic symptoms such as fatigue or weight loss, but most commonly presents with symptoms associated with infiltration of different organ systems. These may include [...] and, less commonly, cutaneous purpura and macroglossia
Answer
restrictive cardiomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, hepatosplenomegaly,

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>AL amyloid may present with nonspecific systemic symptoms such as fatigue or weight loss, but most commonly presents with symptoms associated with infiltration of different organ systems. These may include restrictive cardiomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and, less commonly, cutaneous purpura and macroglossia<html>

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Findings on biopsy show deposits that stain apple green on Congo red staining under a polarizing microscope; these deposits are also visible on electron microscopy.
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Flashcard 1634227588364

Question
what is the finding on microscope in amylodosis ?
Answer
apple green on Congo red staining

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Findings on biopsy show deposits that stain apple green on Congo red staining under a polarizing microscope; these deposits are also visible on electron microscopy.

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Type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA is caused by aldosterone deficiency or resistance. Primary aldosterone deficiency is seen in primary adrenal deficiency (Addison disease),
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Type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA is caused by aldosterone deficiency or resistance. Primary aldosterone deficiency is seen in primary adrenal deficiency (Addison disease)
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Flashcard 1634233093388

Question
Type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA is caused by [...] Primary aldosterone deficiency is seen in primary adrenal deficiency (Addison disease)
Answer
aldosterone deficiency or resistance.

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Type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA is caused by aldosterone deficiency or resistance. Primary aldosterone deficiency is seen in primary adrenal deficiency (Addison disease)

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Flashcard 1634234666252

Question
Type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA is caused by aldosterone deficiency or resistance. Primary aldosterone deficiency is seen in [...]
Answer
primary adrenal deficiency (Addison disease)

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Type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA is caused by aldosterone deficiency or resistance. Primary aldosterone deficiency is seen in primary adrenal deficiency (Addison disease)

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of hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism in which there is diminished renin release by the kidney.
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Flashcard 1634237811980

Question
what is relative deficincy of aldosteron ?
Answer
hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism in which there is diminished renin release by the kidney.

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of hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism in which there is diminished renin release by the kidney.

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occurs most commonly in patients with mild to moderate kidney disease due to diabetic nephropathy (such as this patient) or chronic interstitial nephritis (such as in systemic lupus erythematosus or AIDS). It may also be associated with acute glomerulonephritis, specific drugs that impair renin release (NSAIDs and calcineurin inhibitors), tubulointerstitial disease, and drugs that reduce aldosterone production (ACE inhibitors, cyclooxygenase inhibitors, and heparin).
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Flashcard 1634242268428

Question
reduce aldosterone production
Answer
occurs most commonly in patients with mild to moderate kidney disease due to diabetic nephropathy (such as this patient) or chronic interstitial nephritis (such as in systemic lupus erythematosus or AIDS). It may also be associated with acute glomerulonephritis, specific drugs that impair renin release (NSAIDs and calcineurin inhibitors), tubulointerstitial disease, and drugs that reduce aldosterone production (ACE inhibitors, cyclooxygenase inhibitors, and heparin).

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occurs most commonly in patients with mild to moderate kidney disease due to diabetic nephropathy (such as this patient) or chronic interstitial nephritis (such as in systemic lupus erythematosus or AIDS). It may also be associated with acute glomerulonephritis, specific drugs that impair renin release (NSAIDs and calcineurin inhibitors), tubulointerstitial disease, and drugs that reduce aldosterone production (ACE inhibitors, cyclooxygenase inhibitors, and heparin).

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type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with fludrocortisone is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless hypertension or heart failure is present.
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Flashcard 1634245676300

Question
type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with [...], a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with fludrocortisone is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless hypertension or heart failure is present.
Answer
hyperkalemia

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type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measur

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Flashcard 1634247249164

Question
type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a [...] anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with fludrocortisone is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless hypertension or heart failure is present.
Answer
normal

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type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of pl

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Flashcard 1634248822028

Question
type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic [...], and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with fludrocortisone is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless hypertension or heart failure is present.
Answer
acidosis

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type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of plasma renin activity, serum al

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Flashcard 1634250394892

Question
type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to [...]. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with fludrocortisone is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless hypertension or heart failure is present.
Answer
<5.5

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type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying caus

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Flashcard 1634251967756

Question
type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of [...]. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with fludrocortisone is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless hypertension or heart failure is present.
Answer
plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol

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distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of <span>plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with fludrocortison

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Flashcard 1634253540620

Question
type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with [...] is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless hypertension or heart failure is present.
Answer
fludrocortisone

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rement of plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with <span>fludrocortisone is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless hypertension or heart failure is present.</s

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Flashcard 1634255113484

Question
type 4 (hyperkalemic distal) RTA typically present with hyperkalemia, a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and impaired urine acidification, but with the ability to maintain the urine pH to <5.5. The specific cause can be differentiated by measurement of plasma renin activity, serum aldosterone, and serum cortisol. Initial treatment includes correction of the underlying cause if possible, with discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with fludrocortisone is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless [...] is present.
Answer
hypertension or heart failure

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th discontinuation of offending medications. Replacement of mineralocorticoids with fludrocortisone is indicated for patients with documented deficiency and should be considered for those with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism unless <span>hypertension or heart failure is present.<span><body><html>

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Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) RTA results from a defect in urine acidification in the distal tubule with impaired excretion of hydrogen ions and a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.
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Flashcard 1634258259212

Question
Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) RTA results from a defect in urine acidification in the distal tubule with impaired [...] and a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.
Answer
excretion of hydrogen ions

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Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) RTA results from a defect in urine acidification in the distal tubule with impaired excretion of hydrogen ions and a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.

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Flashcard 1634259832076

Question
Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) RTA results from a defect in urine acidification in the distal tubule with impaired excretion of hydrogen ions and a [...] anion gap metabolic acidosis.
Answer
normal

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Type 1 (hypokalemic distal) RTA results from a defect in urine acidification in the distal tubule with impaired excretion of hydrogen ions and a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.

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Type 2 (proximal) RTA involves a defect in regenerating bicarbonate in the proximal tubule and is characterized by hypokalemia, glycosuria (in the setting of normal plasma glucose), low-molecular-weight proteinuria, and renal phosphate wasting
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Flashcard 1634262977804

Question
Type 2 (proximal) RTA involves a defect in [...] in the proximal tubule and is characterized by hypokalemia, glycosuria (in the setting of normal plasma glucose), low-molecular-weight proteinuria, and renal phosphate wasting
Answer
regenerating bicarbonate

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Type 2 (proximal) RTA involves a defect in regenerating bicarbonate in the proximal tubule and is characterized by hypokalemia, glycosuria (in the setting of normal plasma glucose), low-molecular-weight proteinuria, and renal phosphate wasting

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Flashcard 1634264550668

Question
Type 2 (proximal) RTA involves a defect in regenerating bicarbonate in the proximal tubule and is characterized by [...]
Answer
hypokalemia, glycosuria (in the setting of normal plasma glucose), low-molecular-weight proteinuria, and renal phosphate wasting

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Type 2 (proximal) RTA involves a defect in regenerating bicarbonate in the proximal tubule and is characterized by hypokalemia, glycosuria (in the setting of normal plasma glucose), low-molecular-weight proteinuria, and renal phosphate wasting

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Glomerular hematuria is typically characterized by brown- or tea- colored urine with dysmorphic erythrocytes (or acanthocytes) and/or erythrocyte casts on urine sediment examination, although some glomerular disorders may cause gross hematuria. Other findings suggestive of a glomerular source include proteinuria.
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Flashcard 1634267958540

Question
Glomerular hematuria is typically characterized by brown- or tea- colored urine with dysmorphic erythrocytes (or [...]) and/or erythrocyte casts on urine sediment examination, although some glomerular disorders may cause gross hematuria. Other findings suggestive of a glomerular source include proteinuria.
Answer
acanthocytes

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Glomerular hematuria is typically characterized by brown- or tea- colored urine with dysmorphic erythrocytes (or acanthocytes) and/or erythrocyte casts on urine sediment examination, although some glomerular disorders may cause gross hematuria. Other findings suggestive of a glomerular source in

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Flashcard 1634269531404

Question
Glomerular hematuria is typically characterized by brown- or tea- colored urine with dysmorphic erythrocytes (or acanthocytes) and/or [...] on urine sediment examination, although some glomerular disorders may cause gross hematuria. Other findings suggestive of a glomerular source include proteinuria.
Answer
erythrocyte casts

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Glomerular hematuria is typically characterized by brown- or tea- colored urine with dysmorphic erythrocytes (or acanthocytes) and/or erythrocyte casts on urine sediment examination, although some glomerular disorders may cause gross hematuria. Other findings suggestive of a glomerular source include proteinuria. </

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Diagnosis of thin glomerular basement membrane disease is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure.
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Flashcard 1634272677132

Question
Diagnosis of thin glomerular basement membrane disease is usually based on the history of [...]
Answer
persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure.

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Diagnosis of thin glomerular basement membrane disease is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure.

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thin glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, an inherited type IV collagen abnormality that causes thinning of the GBM and results in hematuria. The disorder may affect up to 5% of the population, and 30% to 50% of patients report a family history of hematuria. The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is excellent, with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).
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Flashcard 1634275822860

Question
thin glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, an inherited [...] abnormality that causes thinning of the GBM and results in hematuria. The disorder may affect up to 5% of the population, and 30% to 50% of patients report a family history of hematuria. The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is excellent, with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).
Answer
type IV collagen

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thin glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, an inherited type IV collagen abnormality that causes thinning of the GBM and results in hematuria. The disorder may affect up to 5% of the population, and 30% to 50% of patients report a family history

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Flashcard 1634277395724

Question
thin glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, an inherited type IV collagen abnormality that causes thinning of the GBM and results in hematuria. The disorder may affect up to 5% of the population, and 30% to 50% of patients report a [...] The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is excellent, with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).
Answer
family history of hematuria.

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lomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, an inherited type IV collagen abnormality that causes thinning of the GBM and results in hematuria. The disorder may affect up to 5% of the population, and 30% to 50% of patients report a <span>family history of hematuria. The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria

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Flashcard 1634278968588

Question
thin glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, an inherited type IV collagen abnormality that causes thinning of the GBM and results in hematuria. The disorder may affect up to 5% of the population, and 30% to 50% of patients report a family history of hematuria. The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, [...] kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is excellent, with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).
Answer
normal

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f patients report a family history of hematuria. The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, <span>normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is excellent, with rare pr

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Flashcard 1634280541452

Question
thin glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, an inherited type IV collagen abnormality that causes thinning of the GBM and results in hematuria. The disorder may affect up to 5% of the population, and 30% to 50% of patients report a family history of hematuria. The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and [...]; biopsy is not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is excellent, with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).
Answer
positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure

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y history of hematuria. The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and <span>positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is excellent, with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634282114316

Question
thin glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, an inherited type IV collagen abnormality that causes thinning of the GBM and results in hematuria. The disorder may affect up to 5% of the population, and 30% to 50% of patients report a family history of hematuria. The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is [...]. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is excellent, with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).
Answer
not typically required

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c or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is <span>not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is excellent, with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634283687180

Question
thin glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, an inherited type IV collagen abnormality that causes thinning of the GBM and results in hematuria. The disorder may affect up to 5% of the population, and 30% to 50% of patients report a family history of hematuria. The disease is characterized by microscopic or macroscopic hematuria that may be first discovered in young adults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is [...], with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).
Answer
excellent

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dults. Diagnosis is usually based on the history of persistent hematuria, normal kidney function, and positive family history of hematuria without kidney failure; biopsy is not typically required. Long-term prognosis for kidney function is <span>excellent, with rare progression to chronic kidney disease (CKD).<span><body><html>

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Fabry disease is a rare X-linked inherited disorder in which there is deficiency of α-galactosidase A (an enzyme in the glycosphingolipid pathway) that leads to progressive deposit of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3) in lysosomes. This disorder may present as CKD in young adulthood. Other associated clinical features include premature coronary artery disease, severe neuropathic pain, telangiectasias, and angiokeratomas.
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Flashcard 1634286832908

Question
Fabry disease is a rare [...] inherited disorder in which there is deficiency of α-galactosidase A (an enzyme in the glycosphingolipid pathway) that leads to progressive deposit of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3) in lysosomes. This disorder may present as CKD in young adulthood. Other associated clinical features include premature coronary artery disease, severe neuropathic pain, telangiectasias, and angiokeratomas.
Answer
X-linked

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Fabry disease is a rare X-linked inherited disorder in which there is deficiency of α-galactosidase A (an enzyme in the glycosphingolipid pathway) that leads to progressive deposit of globotriaosylceram

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Flashcard 1634288405772

Question
Fabry disease is a rare X-linked inherited disorder in which there is deficiency of [...] (an enzyme in the glycosphingolipid pathway) that leads to progressive deposit of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3) in lysosomes. This disorder may present as CKD in young adulthood. Other associated clinical features include premature coronary artery disease, severe neuropathic pain, telangiectasias, and angiokeratomas.
Answer
α-galactosidase A

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Fabry disease is a rare X-linked inherited disorder in which there is deficiency of α-galactosidase A (an enzyme in the glycosphingolipid pathway) that leads to progressive deposit of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3) in lysosomes. This disorder may present as CKD in young ad

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Flashcard 1634289978636

Question
Fabry disease is a rare X-linked inherited disorder in which there is deficiency of α-galactosidase A (an enzyme in the glycosphingolipid pathway) that leads to progressive deposit of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3) in lysosomes. This disorder may present as CKD in young adulthood. Other associated clinical features include [...].
Answer
premature coronary artery disease, severe neuropathic pain, telangiectasias, and angiokeratomas

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(an enzyme in the glycosphingolipid pathway) that leads to progressive deposit of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3) in lysosomes. This disorder may present as CKD in young adulthood. Other associated clinical features include <span>premature coronary artery disease, severe neuropathic pain, telangiectasias, and angiokeratomas.<span><body><html>

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Hereditary nephritis (also known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type IV collagen, is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are X- linked (80%) and are associated with sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.
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Flashcard 1634293124364

Question
Hereditary nephritis (also known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type [...], is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are X- linked (80%) and are associated with sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.
Answer
IV collagen

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Hereditary nephritis (also known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type IV collagen, is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are X- linked (80%) and are associated with sensorineural hearing l

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Flashcard 1634294697228

Question
Hereditary nephritis (also known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type IV collagen, is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are [...] and are associated with sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.
Answer
X- linked (80%)

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d>Hereditary nephritis (also known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type IV collagen, is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are X- linked (80%) and are associated with sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing

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Flashcard 1634296270092

Question
Hereditary nephritis (also known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type IV collagen, is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are X- linked (80%) and are associated with [...] The remaining cases are autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.
Answer
sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing over time.

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so known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type IV collagen, is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are X- linked (80%) and are associated with <span>sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease

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Flashcard 1634297842956

Question
Hereditary nephritis (also known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type IV collagen, is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are X- linked (80%) and are associated with sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are [...] and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.
Answer
autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%)

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e X- linked (80%) and are associated with sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are <span>autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.</

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Flashcard 1634299415820

Question
Hereditary nephritis (also known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type IV collagen, is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are X- linked (80%) and are associated with sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on [...]
Answer
activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.

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kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on <span>activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634300988684

Question
Hereditary nephritis (also known as Alport syndrome), also a heritable disorder of type IV collagen, is a rare cause of end-stage kidney disease with a prevalence of 0.4% among adult U.S. patients. Most cases are X- linked (80%) and are associated with sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus (conical deformation of the lens), with proteinuria, hypertension, and kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on [...]
Answer
activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.

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kidney failure developing over time. The remaining cases are autosomal recessive (15%) or autosomal dominant (5%) and may also be associated with hearing loss. Female carriers variably develop kidney disease depending on <span>activity of the X chromosome in somatic renal cells.<span><body><html>

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Tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC) results from mutations in genes coding for proteins that have a tumor-suppressing effect. Disruption of these gene products allows abnormal cell proliferation in different tissues, including the skin, brain, lung, liver, and kidney. Mild TSC may be detected in adulthood. Renal angiomyolipomas are a characteristic kidney lesion in TSC and occur in 75% of patients on imaging.
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Flashcard 1634304134412

Question
Tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC) results from mutations in genes coding for proteins that have a tumor-suppressing effect. Disruption of these gene products allows abnormal cell proliferation in different tissues, including the skin, brain, lung, liver, and kidney. Mild TSC may be detected in adulthood. Renal [...] are a characteristic kidney lesion in TSC and occur in 75% of patients on imaging.
Answer
angiomyolipomas

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s that have a tumor-suppressing effect. Disruption of these gene products allows abnormal cell proliferation in different tissues, including the skin, brain, lung, liver, and kidney. Mild TSC may be detected in adulthood. Renal <span>angiomyolipomas are a characteristic kidney lesion in TSC and occur in 75% of patients on imaging.<span><body><html>

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stage 1 hypertension (defined as a systolic blood pressure of 140-159 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure of 90-99 mm Hg)
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Flashcard 1634307280140

Question
stage 1 hypertension
Answer
defined as a systolic blood pressure of 140-159 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure of 90-99 mm Hg)

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stage 1 hypertension (defined as a systolic blood pressure of 140-159 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure of 90-99 mm Hg)

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There is evidence that in patients with hypertension and CKD, regardless of diabetes status, renin-angiotensin system agents (ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker [ARB]) have a protective effect on kidney function
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Flashcard 1634310425868

Question
what is the best initial treatment for HTN and CKD with or without DM ?
Answer
renin-angiotensin system agents (ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker [ARB])

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There is evidence that in patients with hypertension and CKD, regardless of diabetes status, renin-angiotensin system agents (ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker [ARB]) have a protective effect on kidney function

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The most effective lifestyle modification is salt restriction to 1500 mg/d, which lowers blood pressure by an average of 7/3 mm Hg.
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Flashcard 1634314358028

Question
The most effective lifestyle modification is [...], which lowers blood pressure by an average of 7/3 mm Hg.
Answer
salt restriction to 1500 mg/d

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The most effective lifestyle modification is salt restriction to 1500 mg/d, which lowers blood pressure by an average of 7/3 mm Hg.

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blood pressure goal of <150/90 mm Hg for those ≥60 years of age. Because his blood pressure measurements have been around 155/85 mm Hg, salt restriction alone as part of lifestyle modifications may be enough to avoid the use of medications to achieve the treatment goal for this 73- year-old patient
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Flashcard 1634317503756

Question
blood pressure goal of [...] for those ≥60 years of age. Because his blood pressure measurements have been around 155/85 mm Hg, salt restriction alone as part of lifestyle modifications may be enough to avoid the use of medications to achieve the treatment goal for this 73- year-old patient
Answer
<150/90 mm Hg

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blood pressure goal of <150/90 mm Hg for those ≥60 years of age. Because his blood pressure measurements have been around 155/85 mm Hg, salt restriction alone as part of lifestyle modifications may be enough to av

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α-blocker doxazosin may be considered for its dual blood pressure–lowering effect and its effect on urinary frequency, its use as first-line therapy for persistent hypertension following lifestyle modification should be decided while considering its adverse effect profile (such as orthostatic hypotension) and its increased incidence of heart failure
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Flashcard 1634320649484

Question
α-blocker doxazosin may be considered for its dual blood pressure–lowering effect and its effect on urinary frequency, its use as first-line therapy for persistent hypertension following lifestyle modification should be decided while considering its adverse effect profile [...]
Answer
(such as orthostatic hypotension) and its increased incidence of heart failure

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al blood pressure–lowering effect and its effect on urinary frequency, its use as first-line therapy for persistent hypertension following lifestyle modification should be decided while considering its adverse effect profile <span>(such as orthostatic hypotension) and its increased incidence of heart failure<span><body><html>

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thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide, which increases serum urate
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Flashcard 1634323795212

Question
WHAT IS THE SIDE EFFECT OF HYDROCHLOROTHIAZIDE IN GOUT ?
Answer
increases serum urate

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thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide, which increases serum urate

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The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN
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Flashcard 1634327989516

Question
The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is [...] most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN
Answer
an immune complex–mediated disease

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The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in

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Flashcard 1634329562380

Question
The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with [...] infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN
Answer
nonstreptococcal

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nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with <span>nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and activate complement

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Flashcard 1634331135244

Question
The finding of a nephritic urine sediment (erythrocytes, erythrocyte casts, and proteinuria) in an azotemic patient with an active infection suggests IRGN. IRGN is an immune complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and [...]
Answer
activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN

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complex–mediated disease most frequently associated with nonstreptococcal infections, with the antigen in the immune complex derived from the infectious agent. Immune complexes deposit in the subepithelial area and <span>activate complement with recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to a proliferative GN<span><body><html>

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Drug-induced tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild proteinuria, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and leukocyte casts on urinalysis. Eosinophiluria, recurrence of fevers, rash, and peripheral eosinophilia may also be seen
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Flashcard 1634334280972

Question
Drug-induced tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after [...] days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild proteinuria, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and leukocyte casts on urinalysis. Eosinophiluria, recurrence of fevers, rash, and peripheral eosinophilia may also be seen
Answer
7 to 10

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Drug-induced tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild proteinuria, erythrocytes, leuk

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Flashcard 1634335853836

Question
Drug-induced tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild [...]
Answer
proteinuria, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and leukocyte casts on urinalysis. Eosinophiluria, recurrence of fevers, rash, and peripheral eosinophilia may also be seen

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d tubular toxicity (for example, with vancomycin) typically occurs after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy and the urine sediment does not show cells, unlike in this patient. Antibiotic-induced AIN is typically associated with mild <span>proteinuria, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and leukocyte casts on urinalysis. Eosinophiluria, recurrence of fevers, rash, and peripheral eosinophilia may also be seen<span><body><html>

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isolated hematuria with a family history of hematuria may require serial measurements of kidney function and urine protein because kidney failure may occur later in life.
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Flashcard 1634346863884

Question
isolated hematuria with a family history of hematuria may require serial measurements of [...] because kidney failure may occur later in life.
Answer
kidney function and urine protein

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isolated hematuria with a family history of hematuria may require serial measurements of kidney function and urine protein because kidney failure may occur later in life.

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familial hematuric syndrome, which is typically associated with either X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of blood pressure, kidney function, and urine protein are reasonable
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Flashcard 1634350009612

Question
familial hematuric syndrome, which is typically associated with either [...]. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of blood pressure, kidney function, and urine protein are reasonable
Answer
X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen

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familial hematuric syndrome, which is typically associated with either X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of blood pressure, kidney function, and urin

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Flashcard 1634351582476

Question
familial hematuric syndrome, which is typically associated with either X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of [...] are reasonable
Answer
blood pressure, kidney function, and urine protein

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drome, which is typically associated with either X-linked or somatic mutations of type IV collagen. In female carriers of X-linked hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome), kidney failure may occur later in life. Thus, annual measurements of <span>blood pressure, kidney function, and urine protein are reasonable<span><body><html>

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Blood pressure averages ≥135/85 mm Hg by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home monitoring meet most consensus panels' definition of hypertension and should be treated with pharmacologic therapy
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Flashcard 1634354728204

Question
Blood pressure averages [...] mm Hg by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home monitoring meet most consensus panels' definition of hypertension and should be treated with pharmacologic therapy
Answer
≥135/85

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Blood pressure averages ≥135/85 mm Hg by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home monitoring meet most consensus panels' definition of hypertension and should be treated with pharmacologic therapy<

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nighttime hypertension is defined by average values >125/75 mm Hg
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Flashcard 1634358136076

Question
nighttime hypertension is defined by average values [...] mm Hg
Answer
>125/75

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nighttime hypertension is defined by average values >125/75 mm Hg

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the typical blood pressure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least 10% (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), and a more rapid rate of decline in glomerular filtration rate
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Flashcard 1634360757516

Question
the typical blood pressure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least [...] (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), and a more rapid rate of decline in glomerular filtration rate
Answer
10%

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head><head> the typical blood pressure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least 10% (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), a

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Flashcard 1634362330380

Question
the typical blood pressure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least 10% (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with [...]
Answer
left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), and a more rapid rate of decline in glomerular filtration rate

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ure drop from daytime to nighttime (during sleep) of approximately 15%, noted in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. A lack of blood pressure drop of at least 10% (“non-dipping”) is independently associated with <span>left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiovascular events, moderately increased albuminuria (formerly known as microalbuminuria), and a more rapid rate of decline in glomerular filtration rate<span><body><html>

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Management of uric acid nephrolithiasis includes adequate urine output, urine alkalinization, and xanthine oxidase inhibitors if needed to decrease uric acid production.
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Flashcard 1634366000396

Question
What is the management of uric acid nehrolithiasis ?
Answer
adequate urine output, urine alkalinization, and xanthine oxidase inhibitors if needed to decrease uric acid production.

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Management of uric acid nephrolithiasis includes adequate urine output, urine alkalinization, and xanthine oxidase inhibitors if needed to decrease uric acid production.

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low urine pH, markedly increase the risk of uric acid stones by favoring the development of insoluble uric acid from the relatively soluble urate salt.
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Flashcard 1634369932556

Question
[...], markedly increase the risk of uric acid stones by favoring the development of insoluble uric acid from the relatively soluble urate salt.
Answer
low urine pH

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low urine pH, markedly increase the risk of uric acid stones by favoring the development of insoluble uric acid from the relatively soluble urate salt.

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Oral hydration to maintain a urine output of at least 2 L/d is the mainstay of therapy. If this is inadequate, the next treatment is urine alkalinization (usually with potassium citrate or potassium bicarbonate) to increase the solubility of uric acid.
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Flashcard 1634373078284

Question
management of uric acid nephrolithiasis ?
Answer
Oral hydration to maintain a urine output of at least 2 L/d is the mainstay of therapy. If this is inadequate, the next treatment is urine alkalinization (usually with potassium citrate or potassium bicarbonate) to increase the solubility of uric acid.

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Oral hydration to maintain a urine output of at least 2 L/d is the mainstay of therapy. If this is inadequate, the next treatment is urine alkalinization (usually with potassium citrate or potassium bicarbonate) to increase the solubility of uric acid.

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Cholestyramine binds bile salts and oxalate in the gut and is sometimes used as a treatment for kidney stones related to hyperoxaluria but would likely not benefit this patient with uric acid stones.
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Flashcard 1634377010444

Question
Cholestyramine binds bile salts and oxalate in the gut and is sometimes used as a treatment for kidney stones related to [...] but would likely not benefit this patient with uric acid stones.
Answer
hyperoxaluria

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Cholestyramine binds bile salts and oxalate in the gut and is sometimes used as a treatment for kidney stones related to hyperoxaluria but would likely not benefit this patient with uric acid stones.

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Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney. However, this is a strategy for treating calcium-based nephrolithiasis and is not effective for uric acid stones.
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Flashcard 1634380156172

Question
Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by [...] However, this is a strategy for treating calcium-based nephrolithiasis and is not effective for uric acid stones.
Answer
increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney.

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Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney. However, this is a strategy for treating calcium-based nephrolithiasis and is not effective for uric acid stones.

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Flashcard 1634381729036

Question
Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney. However, this is a strategy for treating [...] and is not effective for uric acid stones.
Answer
calcium-based nephrolithiasis

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><head>Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, decrease hypercalciuria by increasing proximal sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the kidney. However, this is a strategy for treating calcium-based nephrolithiasis and is not effective for uric acid stones.<html>

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chronic kidney disease stage 4 and greater (glomerular filtration rate <30 mL/min/1.73 m 2 ), thiazide diuretics lose potency, and loop diuretics may often be required.
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Flashcard 1634384874764

Question
chronic kidney disease stage 4 and greater (glomerular filtration rate <30 mL/min/1.73 m 2 ), thiazide diuretics lose potency, and [...] may often be required.
Answer
loop diuretics

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chronic kidney disease stage 4 and greater (glomerular filtration rate <30 mL/min/1.73 m 2 ), thiazide diuretics lose potency, and loop diuretics may often be required.

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The centrally acting agent clonidine and the vasodilator minoxidil are potent antihypertensives sometimes used in cases of resistant hypertension if maximal doses of more conventional agents are unsuccessful. However, this patient is not currently on optimal triple therapy, and both agents also increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension in those with autonomic neuropathy, such as this patient. Moreover, the use of minoxidil without adequate diuresis will worsen salt and water retention and should be avoided.
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Flashcard 1634388282636

Question
The centrally acting agent clonidine and the vasodilator minoxidil are potent antihypertensives sometimes used in cases of resistant hypertension if maximal doses of more conventional agents are unsuccessful. However, this patient is not currently on optimal triple therapy, and both agents also increase the risk of [...] in those with autonomic neuropathy, such as this patient. Moreover, the use of minoxidil without adequate diuresis will worsen salt and water retention and should be avoided.
Answer
orthostatic hypotension

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etimes used in cases of resistant hypertension if maximal doses of more conventional agents are unsuccessful. However, this patient is not currently on optimal triple therapy, and both agents also increase the risk of <span>orthostatic hypotension in those with autonomic neuropathy, such as this patient. Moreover, the use of minoxidil without adequate diuresis will worsen salt and water retention and should be avoided

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Combination therapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure ≥100 mm Hg
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Flashcard 1634391428364

Question
Combination therapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure [...] mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure ≥100 mm Hg
Answer
≥160

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l>Combination therapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure ≥100 mm Hg<html>

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Flashcard 1634393001228

Question
Combination therapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure [...] mm Hg
Answer
≥100

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herapy with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril and the calcium channel blocker (CCB) amlodipine is appropriate for this patient with stage 2 hypertension, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg and/or a diastolic blood pressure <span>≥100 mm Hg<span><body><html>

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Diagnose white coat hypertension using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
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Flashcard 1634396146956

Question
Diagnose white coat hypertension using [...]
Answer
ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

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Diagnose white coat hypertension using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

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White coat hypertension is defined as blood pressure readings in the office ≥140/90 mm Hg and out-of-office readings that average <135/85 mm Hg.
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Flashcard 1634399292684

Question
White coat hypertension is
Answer
blood pressure readings in the office ≥140/90 mm Hg and out-of-office readings that average <135/85 mm Hg.

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White coat hypertension is defined as blood pressure readings in the office ≥140/90 mm Hg and out-of-office readings that average <135/85 mm Hg.

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Urine testing for fractionated metanephrines is used to evaluate for pheochromocytoma as a secondary cause of hypertension.
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Flashcard 1634402438412

Question
Urine testing for fractionated metanephrines is used to evaluate for [...] as a secondary cause of hypertension.
Answer
pheochromocytoma

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Urine testing for fractionated metanephrines is used to evaluate for pheochromocytoma as a secondary cause of hypertension.

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Pheochromocytoma is generally suspected in patients with the symptom triad of episodic headache, sweating, and tachycardia associated with coincident increases in blood pressure
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Flashcard 1634405584140

Question
Pheochromocytoma
Answer
triad of episodic headache, sweating, and tachycardia associated with coincident increases in blood pressure

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Pheochromocytoma is generally suspected in patients with the symptom triad of episodic headache, sweating, and tachycardia associated with coincident increases in blood pressure

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Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy
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Flashcard 1634408729868

Question
Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as [...] in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy
Answer
nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts

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Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy

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Flashcard 1634410302732

Question
Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium [...], and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy
Answer
>1%

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Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises 5 to 10 days after starting therapy

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Flashcard 1634411875596

Question
Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises [...] days after starting therapy
Answer
5 to 10

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an>Aminoglycoside-induced acute kidney injury typically presents as nonoliguric acute tubular necrosis with granular casts in the urine sediment and a fractional excretion of sodium >1%, and the serum creatinine characteristically rises <span>5 to 10 days after starting therapy<span><body><html>

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Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia can also occur with aminoglycoside toxicity due to kidney potassium and magnesium wasting.
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Flashcard 1634415021324

Question
[...] can also occur with aminoglycoside toxicity due to kidney potassium and magnesium wasting.
Answer
Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia

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Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia can also occur with aminoglycoside toxicity due to kidney potassium and magnesium wasting.

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Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
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Flashcard 1634418167052

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute [...] Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
interstitial nephritis.

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Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after d

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Flashcard 1634419739916

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and [...] casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
leukocyte

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Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, t

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Flashcard 1634421312780

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral [...], and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
eosinophilia

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Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure. </s

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Flashcard 1634422885644

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and [...] can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
eosinophiluria

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/head>Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from 3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure. </ht

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Flashcard 1634424458508

Question
Cephalosporins, such as cefazolin, can cause AKI from acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from [...] days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure.
Answer
3 to 5

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acute interstitial nephritis. Urine findings include leukocytes, erythrocytes, and leukocyte casts. Fever, maculopapular rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and eosinophiluria can also occur. Onset of AKI after drug exposure ranges from <span>3 to 5 days with a second exposure, to as long as several weeks to months with a first exposure. <span><body><html>

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Cholesterol embolism occurs in patients with atherosclerotic disease after undergoing an invasive vascular procedure or receiving an anticoagulant or thrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.
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Flashcard 1634427604236

Question
Cholesterol embolism occurs in patients with atherosclerotic disease after undergoing an invasive vascular procedure or receiving an anticoagulant or thrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash [...] AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.
Answer
(livedo reticularis),

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hrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash <span>(livedo reticularis), AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634429177100

Question
Cholesterol embolism occurs in patients with atherosclerotic disease after undergoing an invasive vascular procedure or receiving an anticoagulant or thrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, [...] discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.
Answer
purple

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the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, <span>purple discoloration of the toes, bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634430749964

Question
Cholesterol embolism occurs in patients with atherosclerotic disease after undergoing an invasive vascular procedure or receiving an anticoagulant or thrombolytic agent within the past several months. Emboli from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, [...]
Answer
bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.

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i from ruptured atheromatous plaques occlude small and medium arterioles, causing ischemia and inflammation with organ dysfunction. Clinical features include rash (livedo reticularis), AKI, purple discoloration of the toes, <span>bowel ischemia, neurologic manifestations, and eosinophilia.<span><body><html>

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Iodinated contrast can induce vasospasm and cause ischemic injury or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast
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Flashcard 1634433895692

Question
Iodinated contrast can induce [...] and cause ischemic injury or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast
Answer
vasospasm

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Iodinated contrast can induce vasospasm and cause ischemic injury or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast

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Flashcard 1634435468556

Question
Iodinated contrast can induce vasospasm and cause [...] or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast
Answer
ischemic injury

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Iodinated contrast can induce vasospasm and cause ischemic injury or direct damage to the kidneys. Low osmolar contrast is thought to be safer than high osmolar contrast

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Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as either an increase in serum creatinine of 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 µmol/L) or an increase in serum creatinine of 25% from baseline at 48 hours after contrast administration.
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Flashcard 1634438614284

Question
Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as
Answer
either an increase in serum creatinine of 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 µmol/L) or an increase in serum creatinine of 25% from baseline at 48 hours after contrast administration.

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Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as either an increase in serum creatinine of 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 µmol/L) or an increase in serum creatinine of 25% from baseline at 48 hours after contrast administration.

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Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to new-onset diabetes after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, tacrolimus, and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors sirolimus and everolimus.
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Flashcard 1634442022156

Question
Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to [...] after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, tacrolimus, and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors sirolimus and everolimus.
Answer
new-onset diabetes

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Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to new-onset diabetes after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, tacrolimus, and the mammalian target of rapamyci

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Flashcard 1634443595020

Question
Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to new-onset diabetes after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, [...], and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors sirolimus and everolimus.
Answer
tacrolimus

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Kidney transplant recipients are predisposed to new-onset diabetes after transplantation (often referred to as NODAT). Medications that promote development of NODAT include glucocorticoids, tacrolimus, and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors sirolimus and everolimus.

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Dyslipidemia is also a common complication posttransplantation, and commonly used immunosuppressive medications that promote dyslipidemia include cyclosporine and mTOR inhibitors.
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Flashcard 1634446740748

Question
Dyslipidemia is also a common complication posttransplantation, and commonly used immunosuppressive medications that promote dyslipidemia include [...] and mTOR inhibitors.
Answer
cyclosporine

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Dyslipidemia is also a common complication posttransplantation, and commonly used immunosuppressive medications that promote dyslipidemia include cyclosporine and mTOR inhibitors.

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cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death among kidney transplant recipients
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Flashcard 1634449886476

Question
the leading cause of death among kidney transplant recipients
Answer
cardiovascular disease

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cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death among kidney transplant recipients

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Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; hypercalcemia is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but hypocalcemia is uncommon.
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Flashcard 1634453032204

Question
Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; [...] is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but hypocalcemia is uncommon.
Answer
hypercalcemia

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Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; hypercalcemia is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but hypocalcemia is uncommon.

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Flashcard 1634454605068

Question
Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; hypercalcemia is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but [...] is uncommon.
Answer
hypocalcemia

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Many patients have residual hyperparathyroidism after transplant that can be slow to resolve; hypercalcemia is relatively commonly observed posttransplant but hypocalcemia is uncommon.

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Mechanical stone removal is appropriate for patients with large (>10 mm) kidney stones or those with smaller stones who have failed medical management or have complicated nephrolithiasis (urosepsis, acute kidney injury, anuria, refractory pain).
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Flashcard 1634457750796

Question
Mechanical stone removal is appropriate for patients with large [...] kidney stones or those with smaller stones who have failed medical management or have complicated nephrolithiasis (urosepsis, acute kidney injury, anuria, refractory pain).
Answer
(>10 mm)

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Mechanical stone removal is appropriate for patients with large (>10 mm) kidney stones or those with smaller stones who have failed medical management or have complicated nephrolithiasis (urosepsis, acute kidney injury, anuria, refractory pain). </

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Uncomplicated kidney stones <10 mm in size may usually be treated with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker (such as tamsulosin) or calcium channel blocker (such as nifedipine).
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Flashcard 1634461158668

Question
Uncomplicated kidney stones <10 mm in size may usually be treated with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker [...] or calcium channel blocker (such as nifedipine).
Answer
(such as tamsulosin)

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ney stones <10 mm in size may usually be treated with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker <span>(such as tamsulosin) or calcium channel blocker (such as nifedipine). <span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1634462731532

Question
Uncomplicated kidney stones <10 mm in size may usually be treated with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker (such as tamsulosin) or calcium channel blocker [...]
Answer
(such as nifedipine).

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ed with conservative management (including hydration, analgesia, observation, and periodic re-evaluation) and medical expulsive therapy, which usually consists of either an α-blocker (such as tamsulosin) or calcium channel blocker <span>(such as nifedipine). <span><body><html>

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The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of autoimmune pancreatitis and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a tubulointerstitial pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.
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Flashcard 1634465877260

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The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of autoimmune pancreatitis and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a [...] pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.
Answer
tubulointerstitial

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ml>The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of autoimmune pancreatitis and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a tubulointerstitial pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.<html>

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Flashcard 1634467450124

Question
The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of [...] and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a tubulointerstitial pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.
Answer
autoimmune pancreatitis

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The most likely diagnosis is IgG4-related interstitial nephritis. This patient has a history of autoimmune pancreatitis and now presents with acute kidney injury. Her urinalysis is most consistent with a tubulointerstitial pattern, with mild proteinuria and the presence of inflammatory cells.</s

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Systemic IgG4-related disease is an uncommon disorder characterized by infiltration of different organs by lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates of IgG4-positive plasma cells with resultant fibrosis associated with elevated serum IgG4 levels
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Flashcard 1634470595852

Question
Systemic IgG4-related disease is an uncommon disorder characterized by infiltration of different organs by [...] infiltrates of IgG4-positive plasma cells with resultant fibrosis associated with elevated serum IgG4 levels
Answer
lymphoplasmacytic

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Systemic IgG4-related disease is an uncommon disorder characterized by infiltration of different organs by lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates of IgG4-positive plasma cells with resultant fibrosis associated with elevated serum IgG4 levels

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The first step when assessing a patient with metabolic alkalosis is to clinically assess the patient's volume status.
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Flashcard 1634473741580

Question
The first step when assessing a patient with metabolic alkalosis is to clinically assess the patient's [...]
Answer
volume status.

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The first step when assessing a patient with metabolic alkalosis is to clinically assess the patient's volume status.

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This patient has metabolic alkalosis as implied by the elevated serum bicarbonate and is hypovolemic as evidenced by the orthostatic blood pressure and pulse changes. Such a patient would be expected to have low urine concentrations of sodium and chloride. However, these patient’s urine electrolytes show increased excretion of sodium and chloride despite the evident hypovolemia. These findings suggest the presence of active diuretic use or a renal tubular defect that impairs handling of sodium and chloride, such as Bartter and Gitelman syndromes.
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Flashcard 1634476887308

Question
This patient has metabolic alkalosis as implied by the elevated serum bicarbonate and is hypovolemic as evidenced by the orthostatic blood pressure and pulse changes. Such a patient would be expected to have low urine concentrations of sodium and chloride. However, these patient’s urine electrolytes show increased excretion of sodium and chloride despite the evident hypovolemia. These findings suggest the presence of active diuretic use or a renal tubular defect that impairs handling of sodium and chloride, such as [...] syndromes.
Answer
Bartter and Gitelman

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urine electrolytes show increased excretion of sodium and chloride despite the evident hypovolemia. These findings suggest the presence of active diuretic use or a renal tubular defect that impairs handling of sodium and chloride, such as <span>Bartter and Gitelman syndromes.<span><body><html>

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Measurement of 24-hour urine free cortisol excretion is a standard test for diagnosing Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, hypokalemia, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.
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Flashcard 1634480033036

Question
Measurement of 24-hour urine free cortisol excretion is a standard test for diagnosing [...], which is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, hypokalemia, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.
Answer
Cushing syndrome

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Measurement of 24-hour urine free cortisol excretion is a standard test for diagnosing Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, hypokalemia, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.

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Plasma aldosterone-plasma renin ratio is unlikely to be helpful in this situation. Although primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, the absence of hypertension makes this diagnosis unlikely
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Flashcard 1634483178764

Question
Plasma aldosterone-plasma renin ratio is unlikely to be helpful in this situation. Although [...] is characterized by hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, the absence of hypertension makes this diagnosis unlikely
Answer
primary hyperaldosteronism

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Plasma aldosterone-plasma renin ratio is unlikely to be helpful in this situation. Although primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, the absence of hypertension makes this diagnosis unlikely

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