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Flashcard 1425648782604

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #economics #economics-in-a-global-context #los #reading-20-international-trade-and-capital-flows
Question
If the prices of exports increase relative to the prices of imports, the terms of trade have [...]
Answer
improved

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If the prices of exports increase relative to the prices of imports, the terms of trade have improved

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2.1. Basic Terminology
e to a South African diamond exporter, Britain would classify the cost of the insurance as an export of services to South Africa. Other examples of services exported/imported include engineering, consulting, and medical services. <span>The terms of trade are defined as the ratio of the price of exports to the price of imports, representing those prices by export and import price indices, respectively. The terms of trade capture the relative cost of imports in terms of exports. If the prices of exports increase relative to the prices of imports, the terms of trade have improved because the country will be able to purchase more imports with the same amount of exports.2 For example, when oil prices increased during 2007–2008, major oil exporting countries experienced an improvement in their terms of trade because they had to export less oil in order to purchase the same amount of imported goods. In contrast, if the price of exports decreases relative to the price of imports, the terms of trade have deteriorated because the country will be able to purchase fewer imports with the same amount of exports. Because each country exports and imports a large number of goods and services, the terms of trade of a country are usually measured as an index number (normalized to 100 in some base year) that represents a ratio of the average price of exported goods and services to the average price of imported goods and services. Exhibit 1shows the terms of trade reported in Salvatore (2010). A value over (under) 100 indicates that the country, or group of countries, experienced better (worse) terms of trade rel






Annotation 1649619373324

Oral alkali therapy ( NaHCO3 ) to maintain serum bicarbonate levels between 23 and 29 mEq/L (23-29 mmol/L) reduces the risk of progression of chronic kidney disease.
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Flashcard 1649621732620

Question
Oral alkali therapy ( NaHCO3 ) to maintain serum bicarbonate levels between [...] mmol/L) reduces the risk of progression of chronic kidney disease.
Answer
23 and 29 mEq/L (23-29

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Oral alkali therapy ( NaHCO3 ) to maintain serum bicarbonate levels between 23 and 29 mEq/L (23-29 mmol/L) reduces the risk of progression of chronic kidney disease.

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Annotation 1649624354060

Mesalamine-induced interstitial nephritis is a well-described
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Flashcard 1649625926924

Question
Mesalamine-induced [...] is a well-described
Answer
interstitial nephritis

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Mesalamine-induced interstitial nephritis is a well-described

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Annotation 1649627499788

Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of interstitial nephritis, which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild subnephrotic proteinuria also can be seen with interstitial nephritis
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Flashcard 1649629072652

Question
Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of [...], which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild subnephrotic proteinuria also can be seen with interstitial nephritis
Answer
interstitial nephritis

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Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of interstitial nephritis, which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild subnephrotic proteinuria also can be seen with interstitial nephr

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Flashcard 1649630645516

Question
Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of interstitial nephritis, which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild [...] also can be seen with interstitial nephritis
Answer
subnephrotic proteinuria

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Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of interstitial nephritis, which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild subnephrotic proteinuria also can be seen with interstitial nephritis

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Annotation 1649632218380

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement
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Flashcard 1649633791244

Question
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with [...] and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement
Answer
hematuria

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Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associate

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Flashcard 1649635364108

Question
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and [...] and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement
Answer
erythrocyte casts

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Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying et

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Flashcard 1649636936972

Question
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as [...]
Answer
pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement

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ia and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as <span>pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement<span><body><html>

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Annotation 1649639034124

Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the 20th week of gestation, or persists longer than 12 weeks POST DELIVERY
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Flashcard 1649641393420

Question
Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the [...] week of gestation, or persists longer than 12 weeks POST DELIVERY
Answer
20th

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Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the 20th week of gestation, or persists longer than 12 weeks POST DELIVERY

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Flashcard 1649642966284

Question
Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the 20th week of gestation, or persists longer than [...] weeks POST DELIVERY
Answer
12

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Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the 20th week of gestation, or persists longer than 12 weeks POST DELIVERY

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Annotation 1649644801292

The diagnosis of HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets) syndrome requires evidence of hemolysis and abnormal liver chemistry tests in addition to thrombocytopenia.
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Flashcard 1649646374156

Question
The diagnosis of HELLP (hemolysis, [...], and low platelets) syndrome requires evidence of hemolysis and abnormal liver chemistry tests in addition to thrombocytopenia.
Answer
elevated liver enzymes

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The diagnosis of HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets) syndrome requires evidence of hemolysis and abnormal liver chemistry tests in addition to thrombocytopenia.

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Annotation 1649647947020

Elevated serum phosphorus levels, particularly exceeding 6.5 mg/dL (2.09 mmol/L), are closely associated with increased mortality.
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Flashcard 1649649782028

Question
Elevated serum phosphorus levels, particularly exceeding [...] mg/dL (2.09 mmol/L), are closely associated with increased mortality.
Answer
6.5

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Elevated serum phosphorus levels, particularly exceeding 6.5 mg/dL (2.09 mmol/L), are closely associated with increased mortality.

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Annotation 1649651354892

Ferric citrate, another non-calcium– containing phosphorus binder, was recently approved for use in patients receiving dialysis but is not yet approved for patients with non-dialysis CKD.
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Flashcard 1649652927756

Question
[...], another non-calcium– containing phosphorus binder, was recently approved for use in patients receiving dialysis but is not yet approved for patients with non-dialysis CKD.
Answer
Ferric citrate

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Ferric citrate, another non-calcium– containing phosphorus binder, was recently approved for use in patients receiving dialysis but is not yet approved for patients with non-dialysis CKD. </s

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Annotation 1649654500620

Iron deficiency is the most common cause of hyporesponsiveness to erythropoietin, and guidelines recommend intravenous rather than oral iron replacement among hemodialysis patients who require iron.
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Flashcard 1649657646348

Question
Iron deficiency is the most common cause of hyporesponsiveness to erythropoietin, and guidelines recommend [...] iron replacement among hemodialysis patients who require iron.
Answer
intravenous rather than oral

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Iron deficiency is the most common cause of hyporesponsiveness to erythropoietin, and guidelines recommend intravenous rather than oral iron replacement among hemodialysis patients who require iron.

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Annotation 1649659219212

(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >30% and serum ferritin levels of >500 ng/mL (500 µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,
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Flashcard 1649660792076

Question
(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >[...] and serum ferritin levels of >500 ng/mL (500 µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,
Answer
30%

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(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >30% and serum ferritin levels of >500 ng/mL (500 µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,

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Flashcard 1649662364940

Question
(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >30% and serum ferritin levels of >[...] µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,
Answer
500 ng/mL (500

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(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >30% and serum ferritin levels of >500 ng/mL (500 µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,

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Annotation 1649664462092

KDIGO guidelines suggest avoiding dosing erythropoietin to achieve a hemoglobin level >11.5 g/dL (115 g/L)
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Flashcard 1649666034956

Question
KDIGO guidelines suggest avoiding dosing erythropoietin to achieve a hemoglobin level >[...] g/L)
Answer
11.5 g/dL (115

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KDIGO guidelines suggest avoiding dosing erythropoietin to achieve a hemoglobin level >11.5 g/dL (115 g/L)

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Annotation 1649668656396

Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) on the podocyte surface in up to 80% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.
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Flashcard 1649671277836

Question
Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) on the podocyte surface in up to [...]% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.
Answer
80

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Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) on the podocyte surface in up to 80% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.

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Flashcard 1649672850700

Question
Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the [...] on the podocyte surface in up to 80% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.
Answer
phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R)

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Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) on the podocyte surface in up to 80% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.

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Annotation 1649674685708

Secondary causes of membranous glomerulopathy MG include malignancies (solid organ cancers, especially lung, colon, and breast), autoimmune diseases (such as lupus or mixed connective tissue disease), infections (hepatitis B and C), and medications (penicillamine, gold, and NSAIDs). Evaluation for potential secondary causes should always be undertaken in patients with MG, especially those who are negative for PLA2R antibodies.
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Flashcard 1649677307148

Question
what are the secondary causes of membranous glomerulopathy ?
Answer
Secondary causes of membranous glomerulopathy MG include malignancies (solid organ cancers, especially lung, colon, and breast), autoimmune diseases (such as lupus or mixed connective tissue disease), infections (hepatitis B and C), and medications (penicillamine, gold, and NSAIDs). Evaluation for potential secondary causes should always be undertaken in patients with MG, especially those who are negative for PLA2R antibodies.

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Secondary causes of membranous glomerulopathy MG include malignancies (solid organ cancers, especially lung, colon, and breast), autoimmune diseases (such as lupus or mixed connective tissue disease), infections (hepatitis B and C), and medications (penicillamine, gold, and NSAIDs). Evaluation for potential secondary causes should always be undertaken in patients with MG, especially those who are negative for PLA2R antibodies.

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Annotation 1650476059916

#jace #tridium

There are three driving factors behind the adoption of Tridium:

  1. A large amount of third-party integration drivers
  2. A distributor model that provides open availability of the product
  3. A SDK that allows developers to customize their own integrations

Tridium is built on Niagara AX (or N4 as Tridium is calling the new platform) which is a proprietary framework.
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What is Tridium Part 1 - Building Automation Monthly
is and what Tridium isn’t. At the end of this article I will provide you some related articles and a chance to learn more about building automation. So what is Tridium? Tridium is the latest buzz word in the Building Automation Industry. <span>There are three driving factors behind the adoption of Tridium: A large amount of third-party integration drivers A distributor model that provides open availability of the product A SDK that allows developers to customize their own integrations Tridium is built on Niagara AX (or N4 as Tridium is calling the new platform) which is a proprietary framework. Tridium itself is the brand name for the product built upon the AX framework. A typical Tridium device is comprised of several open and proprietary protocols provided on a scalable pl



Flashcard 1650478943500

Question
abv. LEED
Answer
Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design

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San Francisco Federal Building - Wikipedia
sh emissions of greenhouse gases. Utilizing natural light to illuminate 80% of the building helped it achieve worldwide recognition as the first Federal Building to be certified under the USGBC's Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (<span>LEED) criteria. [6] Additionally, it was the first naturally ventilated office building on the west coast since the advent of air conditioning. [7] The building features some elevators whi






Annotation 1650484448524

Total project costs (hard costs, soft costs and land) for the 52,000 square-foot Bullitt Center were $32.5 million.
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Annotation 1650515643660

alcohol-induced liver disease, and the most appropriate treatment is to stop alcohol intake.
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Flashcard 1650517216524

Question
alcohol-induced liver disease, and the most appropriate treatment is to [...].
Answer
stop alcohol intake

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alcohol-induced liver disease, and the most appropriate treatment is to stop alcohol intake.

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Annotation 1650518789388

In alcohol-induced liver disease, serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels are typically elevated two to six times the upper limit of normal but AST levels above 500 U/L and ALT levels above 200 U/L are uncommon. An AST/ALT ratio above 2 to 3 is typical for alcoholic liver disease.
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Flashcard 1650520362252

Question
In alcohol-induced liver disease, serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels are typically elevated [...] times the upper limit of normal but AST levels above 500 U/L and ALT levels above 200 U/L are uncommon. An AST/ALT ratio above 2 to 3 is typical for alcoholic liver disease.
Answer
two to six

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In alcohol-induced liver disease, serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels are typically elevated two to six times the upper limit of normal but AST levels above 500 U/L and ALT levels above 200 U/L are uncommon. An AST/ALT ratio above 2 to 3 is typical for alcoholic liver disease. <

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Flashcard 1650521935116

Question
In alcohol-induced liver disease, serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels are typically elevated two to six times the upper limit of normal but AST levels above 500 U/L and ALT levels above 200 U/L are uncommon. An AST/ALT ratio above [...] is typical for alcoholic liver disease.
Answer
2 to 3

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rum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels are typically elevated two to six times the upper limit of normal but AST levels above 500 U/L and ALT levels above 200 U/L are uncommon. An AST/ALT ratio above <span>2 to 3 is typical for alcoholic liver disease. <span><body><html>

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Annotation 1650523507980

Hereditary hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disease, and homozygosity for C282Y is generally required to cause iron overload
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Flashcard 1650525080844

Question
Hereditary hemochromatosis is an autosomal [...] disease, and homozygosity for C282Y is generally required to cause iron overload
Answer
recessive

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Hereditary hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disease, and homozygosity for C282Y is generally required to cause iron overload

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Flashcard 1650526653708

Question
Hereditary hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disease, and homozygosity for [...] is generally required to cause iron overload
Answer
C282Y

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Hereditary hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disease, and homozygosity for C282Y is generally required to cause iron overload

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Annotation 1650528226572

The initial step in evaluating patients with suspected hemochromatosis is a serum transferrin saturation measurement, which is the most sensitive test in diagnosing this condition
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Flashcard 1650529799436

Question
The initial step in evaluating patients with suspected hemochromatosis is a serum [...] measurement, which is the most sensitive test in diagnosing this condition
Answer
transferrin saturation

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The initial step in evaluating patients with suspected hemochromatosis is a serum transferrin saturation measurement, which is the most sensitive test in diagnosing this condition

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Annotation 1650531372300

Serum ferritin, although not usually used as an initial diagnostic study for suspected hemochromatosis, is a surrogate measure of iron stores; values greater than 1000 ng/mL (1000 µg/L) in the absence of an inflammatory state or another cause for liver disease suggest hemochromatosis.
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Flashcard 1650532945164

Question
Serum ferritin, although [...] usually used as an initial diagnostic study for suspected hemochromatosis, is a surrogate measure of iron stores; values greater than 1000 ng/mL (1000 µg/L) in the absence of an inflammatory state or another cause for liver disease suggest hemochromatosis.
Answer
not

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Serum ferritin, although not usually used as an initial diagnostic study for suspected hemochromatosis, is a surrogate measure of iron stores; values greater than 1000 ng/mL (1000 µg/L) in the absence of an infl

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Flashcard 1650534518028

Question
Serum ferritin, although not usually used as an initial diagnostic study for suspected hemochromatosis, is a surrogate measure of iron stores; values greater than [...] µg/L) in the absence of an inflammatory state or another cause for liver disease suggest hemochromatosis.
Answer
1000 ng/mL (1000

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Serum ferritin, although not usually used as an initial diagnostic study for suspected hemochromatosis, is a surrogate measure of iron stores; values greater than 1000 ng/mL (1000 µg/L) in the absence of an inflammatory state or another cause for liver disease suggest hemochromatosis.

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Annotation 1650536090892

Serum ferritin measurement is therefore used as a follow-up study for elevated transferrin saturation levels.in case of hemochromatosis
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Flashcard 1650538450188

Question
Serum ferritin measurement is therefore used as a [...] study for elevated transferrin saturation levels.in case of hemochromatosis
Answer
follow-up

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Serum ferritin measurement is therefore used as a follow-up study for elevated transferrin saturation levels.in case of hemochromatosis

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Annotation 1650540023052

Phlebotomy (the treatment of choice for hemochromatosis) and iron chelation with deferoxamine (the typical treatment for secondary iron overload conditions)
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Flashcard 1650541595916

Question
[...] (the treatment of choice for hemochromatosis) and iron chelation with deferoxamine (the typical treatment for secondary iron overload conditions)
Answer
Phlebotomy

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Phlebotomy (the treatment of choice for hemochromatosis) and iron chelation with deferoxamine (the typical treatment for secondary iron overload conditions)

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Flashcard 1650543168780

Question
Phlebotomy (the treatment of choice for hemochromatosis) and [...] (the typical treatment for secondary iron overload conditions)
Answer
iron chelation with deferoxamine

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Phlebotomy (the treatment of choice for hemochromatosis) and iron chelation with deferoxamine (the typical treatment for secondary iron overload conditions)

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Annotation 1650544741644

This patient is heterozygous for C282Y and has a slightly elevated serum ferritin level but a normal transferrin saturation; these findings do not support the diagnosis of hemochromatosis.
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Flashcard 1650546314508

Question
This patient is heterozygous for C282Y and has a slightly elevated serum ferritin level but a normal transferrin saturation; these findings do not support the diagnosis of [...].
Answer
hemochromatosis

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This patient is heterozygous for C282Y and has a slightly elevated serum ferritin level but a normal transferrin saturation; these findings do not support the diagnosis of hemochromatosis.

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Annotation 1650547887372

Artificial sweeteners have little or no absorption in the small intestine and, when taken in excess, can cause symptoms of carbohydrate malabsorption.
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Flashcard 1650549460236

Question
Artificial sweeteners have little or no absorption in the small intestine and, when taken in excess, can cause symptoms of [...].
Answer
carbohydrate malabsorption

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Artificial sweeteners have little or no absorption in the small intestine and, when taken in excess, can cause symptoms of carbohydrate malabsorption.

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Annotation 1650551033100

The presence of bloating is also characteristic of diarrhea due to nonabsorbed carbohydrates.
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Flashcard 1650552605964

Question
The presence of bloating is also characteristic of diarrhea due to nonabsorbed [...].
Answer
carbohydrates

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The presence of bloating is also characteristic of diarrhea due to nonabsorbed carbohydrates.

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Annotation 1650554178828

in diarrhea of malabsorption of carbohydrates, an elevation in the osmotic gap in stool electrolytes analysis would be expected.
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Flashcard 1650556538124

Question
in diarrhea of malabsorption of carbohydrates, an elevation in the [...] in stool electrolytes analysis would be expected.
Answer
osmotic gap

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in diarrhea of malabsorption of carbohydrates, an elevation in the osmotic gap in stool electrolytes analysis would be expected.

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Annotation 1650558110988

osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool potassium] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between 50 and 100 mOsm/kg (50 and 100 mmol/kg) is equivocal.
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Flashcard 1650559683852

Question
osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool [...] + stool potassium] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between 50 and 100 mOsm/kg (50 and 100 mmol/kg) is equivocal.
Answer
sodium

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osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool potassium] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A g

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Flashcard 1650561256716

Question
osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool [...]] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between 50 and 100 mOsm/kg (50 and 100 mmol/kg) is equivocal.
Answer
potassium

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osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool potassium] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between 50 and

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Flashcard 1650562829580

Question
osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool potassium] A gap greater than [...] mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between 50 and 100 mOsm/kg (50 and 100 mmol/kg) is equivocal.
Answer
100 mOsm/kg (100

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osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool potassium] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between 50 and 100 mOsm/kg (50 and 100 mmol/kg) is equ

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Flashcard 1650564402444

Question
osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool potassium] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than [...] mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between 50 and 100 mOsm/kg (50 and 100 mmol/kg) is equivocal.
Answer
50 mOsm/kg (50

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tml>osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool potassium] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between 50 and 100 mOsm/kg (50 and 100 mmol/kg) is equivocal.<html>

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Flashcard 1650565975308

Question
osmotic gap is calculated using the following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool potassium] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between [...] mmol/kg) is equivocal.
Answer
50 and 100 mOsm/kg (50 and 100

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e following equation: 290 – 2 × [stool sodium + stool potassium] A gap greater than 100 mOsm/kg (100 mmol/kg) indicates an osmotic diarrhea. If the gap is less than 50 mOsm/kg (50 mmol/kg), the diarrhea is not osmotic. A gap between <span>50 and 100 mOsm/kg (50 and 100 mmol/kg) is equivocal.<span><body><html>

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Annotation 1650567548172

Sugar-free sweeteners are metabolized by gut bacteria, liberating gas and osmotically active substances that cause diarrhea and account for the osmotic gap.
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Flashcard 1650569121036

Question
Sugar-free sweeteners are metabolized by [...], liberating gas and osmotically active substances that cause diarrhea and account for the osmotic gap.
Answer
gut bacteria

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Sugar-free sweeteners are metabolized by gut bacteria, liberating gas and osmotically active substances that cause diarrhea and account for the osmotic gap.

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Annotation 1650572004620

Tissue transglutaminase (tTG) IgA antibody measurement would be useful to evaluate for celiac disease
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Flashcard 1650573577484

Question
[...] antibody measurement would be useful to evaluate for celiac disease
Answer
Tissue transglutaminase (tTG) IgA

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Tissue transglutaminase (tTG) IgA antibody measurement would be useful to evaluate for celiac disease

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Annotation 1650575150348

the empiric use of a gluten-free diet is not recommended in the absence of a confirmed diagnosis of celiac disease.
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Flashcard 1650577509644

Question
the empiric use of a gluten-free diet is not recommended in the absence of a confirmed diagnosis of [...] disease.
Answer
celiac

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the empiric use of a gluten-free diet is not recommended in the absence of a confirmed diagnosis of celiac disease.

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Annotation 1650579082508

Given that spaced practice is not the default study habit for most stu- dents (particularly the ones who are performing poorly), edu- cators could be especially helpful by structuring their pedagogy in a way that encourages spaced review
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Annotation 1650580917516

A serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L) or greater with an ascitic fluid total protein level of 2.5 g/dL (25 g/L) or greater indicates a cardiac cause of ascites.
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Flashcard 1650582490380

Question
A serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L) or greater with an ascitic fluid total protein level of 2.5 g/dL (25 g/L) or greater indicates a [...] cause of ascites.
Answer
cardiac

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A serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L) or greater with an ascitic fluid total protein level of 2.5 g/dL (25 g/L) or greater indicates a cardiac cause of ascites.

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Annotation 1650584063244

Patients with cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and resultant ascites will also have a SAAG greater than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), but the ascitic fluid total protein level will be less than 2.5 g/dL (25 g/L).
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Flashcard 1650585636108

Question
Patients with [...], portal hypertension, and resultant ascites will also have a SAAG greater than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), but the ascitic fluid total protein level will be less than 2.5 g/dL (25 g/L).
Answer
cirrhosis

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Patients with cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and resultant ascites will also have a SAAG greater than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), but the ascitic fluid total protein level will be less than 2.5 g/dL (25 g/L).

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Flashcard 1650587208972

Question
Patients with cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and resultant ascites will also have a SAAG greater than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), but the ascitic fluid total protein level will be [...] than 2.5 g/dL (25 g/L).
Answer
less

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Patients with cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and resultant ascites will also have a SAAG greater than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), but the ascitic fluid total protein level will be less than 2.5 g/dL (25 g/L).

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Annotation 1650588781836

Spaced practice can be a cost-effective — learning becomes more durable in the same amount of time; therefore, less time needs to be spent on relearning, leaving more time for other productive learning activities (e.g., higher order analysis, application of knowledge). In short, spaced practice enhances the efficacy and efficiency of learning, yet is underused.
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Annotation 1650590354700

Tuberculous peritonitis is very uncommon and is associated with a SAAG less than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), an ascitic fluid total protein level greater than 3 g/dL (30 g/L), and a lymphocytic predominance in the cell count with differential.
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Flashcard 1650591927564

Question
Tuberculous peritonitis is very uncommon and is associated with a SAAG [...] than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), an ascitic fluid total protein level greater than 3 g/dL (30 g/L), and a lymphocytic predominance in the cell count with differential.
Answer
less

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Tuberculous peritonitis is very uncommon and is associated with a SAAG less than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), an ascitic fluid total protein level greater than 3 g/dL (30 g/L), and a lymphocytic predominance in the cell count with differential.</ht

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Flashcard 1650593500428

Question
Tuberculous peritonitis is very uncommon and is associated with a SAAG less than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), an ascitic fluid total protein level greater than [...] g/L), and a lymphocytic predominance in the cell count with differential.
Answer
3 g/dL (30

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Tuberculous peritonitis is very uncommon and is associated with a SAAG less than 1.1 g/dL (11 g/L), an ascitic fluid total protein level greater than 3 g/dL (30 g/L), and a lymphocytic predominance in the cell count with differential.

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Annotation 1650595073292

The classroom-based studies described earlier (Rohrer et al., 2014; Rohrer et al., 2015) show how a small change in homework assignments—switching from having the practice problems in a given assignment on just one topic, to having a mix of problems pertaining to various top- ics appearing in each assignment—can dramatically improve mathematics learning.
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Annotation 1650596646156

Pill-induced esophagitis is characterized by chest pain, dysphagia, and odynophagia and has been associated with alendronate, quinidine, tetracycline, doxycycline, potassium chloride, ferrous sulfate, and mexiletine.
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Flashcard 1650598481164

Question
Pill-induced esophagitis is characterized by chest pain, dysphagia, and odynophagia and has been associated with [...]
Answer
alendronate, quinidine, tetracycline, doxycycline, potassium chloride, ferrous sulfate, and mexiletine.

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Pill-induced esophagitis is characterized by chest pain, dysphagia, and odynophagia and has been associated with alendronate, quinidine, tetracycline, doxycycline, potassium chloride, ferrous sulfate, and mexiletine.

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Annotation 1650600054028

Infectious esophagitis is typically caused byCandida albicans, herpes simplex virus, and cytomegalovirus. These infections typically occur in patients who are immunosuppressed owing to medications (such as glucocorticoids, azathioprine, or tumor necrosis factor-α inhibitors) or congenital or acquired immunodeficiencies. Use of swallowed aerosolized glucocorticoids may put an immunocompetent patient at risk for some of these infections. Candida infection is characterized by small, white, raised plaques on upper endoscopy, and esophageal brushings confirm the diagnosis.
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Flashcard 1650601626892

Question
Infectious esophagitis is typically caused by[...]virus. These infections typically occur in patients who are immunosuppressed owing to medications (such as glucocorticoids, azathioprine, or tumor necrosis factor-α inhibitors) or congenital or acquired immunodeficiencies. Use of swallowed aerosolized glucocorticoids may put an immunocompetent patient at risk for some of these infections. Candida infection is characterized by small, white, raised plaques on upper endoscopy, and esophageal brushings confirm the diagnosis.
Answer
Candida albicans, herpes simplex virus, and cytomegalo

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Infectious esophagitis is typically caused byCandida albicans, herpes simplex virus, and cytomegalovirus. These infections typically occur in patients who are immunosuppressed owing to medications (such as glucocorticoids, azathioprine, or tumor necrosis factor-α inhibitors) or con

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Annotation 1650603199756

National cultures are always bound up with notions of the ‘good’ and ‘proper’ way of life which is why they elicit pride and loyalty.
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Flashcard 1650604772620

Question
Infectious esophagitis is typically caused byCandida albicans, herpes simplex virus, and cytomegalovirus. These infections typically occur in patients who are immunosuppressed owing to medications (such as [...]) or congenital or acquired immunodeficiencies. Use of swallowed aerosolized glucocorticoids may put an immunocompetent patient at risk for some of these infections. Candida infection is characterized by small, white, raised plaques on upper endoscopy, and esophageal brushings confirm the diagnosis.
Answer
glucocorticoids, azathioprine, or tumor necrosis factor-α inhibitors

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ml>Infectious esophagitis is typically caused byCandida albicans, herpes simplex virus, and cytomegalovirus. These infections typically occur in patients who are immunosuppressed owing to medications (such as glucocorticoids, azathioprine, or tumor necrosis factor-α inhibitors) or congenital or acquired immunodeficiencies. Use of swallowed aerosolized glucocorticoids may put an immunocompetent patient at risk for some of these infections. Candida infection

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Flashcard 1650606345484

Question
Infectious esophagitis is typically caused byCandida albicans, herpes simplex virus, and cytomegalovirus. These infections typically occur in patients who are immunosuppressed owing to medications (such as glucocorticoids, azathioprine, or tumor necrosis factor-α inhibitors) or congenital or acquired immunodeficiencies. Use of swallowed aerosolized glucocorticoids may put an immunocompetent patient at risk for some of these infections. Candida infection is characterized by small, white, raised plaques on upper endoscopy, and esophageal [...] confirm the diagnosis.
Answer
brushings

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mmunodeficiencies. Use of swallowed aerosolized glucocorticoids may put an immunocompetent patient at risk for some of these infections. Candida infection is characterized by small, white, raised plaques on upper endoscopy, and esophageal <span>brushings confirm the diagnosis.<span><body><html>

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Annotation 1650607918348

With the advent of communicative language teaching, the humanistic concept of culture has given way to a more pragmatic concept of culture as way of life.
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Annotation 1650609491212

Eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE) is defined as esophageal squamous mucosal inflammation caused by eosinophilic infiltration. EoE is usually seen in young men who present with dysphagia and a food-bolus obstruction.
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Flashcard 1650611064076

Question
Eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE) is defined as esophageal [...] inflammation caused by eosinophilic infiltration. EoE is usually seen in young men who present with dysphagia and a food-bolus obstruction.
Answer
squamous mucosal

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Eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE) is defined as esophageal squamous mucosal inflammation caused by eosinophilic infiltration. EoE is usually seen in young men who present with dysphagia and a food-bolus obstruction.

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Flashcard 1650612636940

Question
Eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE) is defined as esophageal squamous mucosal inflammation caused by eosinophilic infiltration. EoE is usually seen in young men who present with dysphagia and a [...] obstruction.
Answer
food-bolus

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Eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE) is defined as esophageal squamous mucosal inflammation caused by eosinophilic infiltration. EoE is usually seen in young men who present with dysphagia and a food-bolus obstruction.

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Annotation 1650614209804

Appropriate treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis consists of a third-generation cephalosporin and, in many patients, intravenous albumin.
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Flashcard 1650615782668

Question
Appropriate treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis consists of a [...].
Answer
third-generation cephalosporin and, in many patients, intravenous albumin

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Appropriate treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis consists of a third-generation cephalosporin and, in many patients, intravenous albumin.

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Annotation 1650617355532

Patients with SBP with a serum creatinine level greater than 1 mg/dL (88.4 µmol/L), a serum bilirubin level greater than 4 mg/dL (68.4 µmol/L), or a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 30 mg/dL (10.7 mmol/L) should receive 1.5 g/kg of intravenous albumin (25%) on the day of diagnosis and 1 g/kg of albumin on day 3
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Flashcard 1650619714828

Question
Patients with SBP with a serum creatinine level greater than [...] µmol/L), a serum bilirubin level greater than 4 mg/dL (68.4 µmol/L), or a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 30 mg/dL (10.7 mmol/L) should receive 1.5 g/kg of intravenous albumin (25%) on the day of diagnosis and 1 g/kg of albumin on day 3
Answer
1 mg/dL (88.4

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Patients with SBP with a serum creatinine level greater than 1 mg/dL (88.4 µmol/L), a serum bilirubin level greater than 4 mg/dL (68.4 µmol/L), or a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 30 mg/dL (10.7 mmol/L) should receive 1.5 g/kg of intravenous albumin (2

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Flashcard 1650621287692

Question
Patients with SBP with a serum creatinine level greater than 1 mg/dL (88.4 µmol/L), a serum bilirubin level greater than 4 mg/dL (68.4 µmol/L), or a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 30 mg/dL (10.7 mmol/L) should receive [...] of intravenous albumin (25%) on the day of diagnosis and 1 g/kg of albumin on day 3
Answer
1.5 g/kg

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ody>Patients with SBP with a serum creatinine level greater than 1 mg/dL (88.4 µmol/L), a serum bilirubin level greater than 4 mg/dL (68.4 µmol/L), or a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 30 mg/dL (10.7 mmol/L) should receive 1.5 g/kg of intravenous albumin (25%) on the day of diagnosis and 1 g/kg of albumin on day 3<body><html>

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Flashcard 1650622860556

Question
Patients with SBP with a serum creatinine level greater than 1 mg/dL (88.4 µmol/L), a serum bilirubin level greater than 4 mg/dL (68.4 µmol/L), or a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 30 mg/dL (10.7 mmol/L) should receive 1.5 g/kg of intravenous albumin (25%) on the day of diagnosis and [...] of albumin on day 3
Answer
1 g/kg

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reater than 1 mg/dL (88.4 µmol/L), a serum bilirubin level greater than 4 mg/dL (68.4 µmol/L), or a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 30 mg/dL (10.7 mmol/L) should receive 1.5 g/kg of intravenous albumin (25%) on the day of diagnosis and <span>1 g/kg of albumin on day 3<span><body><html>

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Annotation 1650624433420

Norfloxacin (or ciprofloxacin) is effective for secondary prevention of SBP and should be given to this patient indefinitely after completion of intravenous cefotaxime.
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Flashcard 1650626006284

Question
[...]) is effective for secondary prevention of SBP and should be given to this patient indefinitely after completion of intravenous cefotaxime.
Answer
Norfloxacin (or ciprofloxacin

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Norfloxacin (or ciprofloxacin) is effective for secondary prevention of SBP and should be given to this patient indefinitely after completion of intravenous cefotaxime.

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Annotation 1650666114316

Information is better remembered when dual rather than single coded, because when one memory trace is lost the other remains available. Moreover, pictures are better remembered than words because pictures are more likely to acti- vate the image-to-word referential connections, so they can be coded both visually and verbally
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Annotation 1650670046476

many students believed that the verbal annotations (i.e., translations) were easier to process than images, requiring less mental effort to clarify meaning. How- ever, those who accessed visual annotations outperformed those who did not, showing the value on this occasion of learners choosing the more difficult path for increased learning (p. 58)
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Annotation 1650682367244

This kind of potential ill readily infects those "proposition-expanding" state- ments as well. A sentence like 'The move for cultural diversity at our universities and colleges has been in part spurred by our changing demographic student body" can certainly be considered part of an author's primary discourse that supplies propositional content. In spite of its primary status, such a sentence is very much susceptible to "misfire" if it turns out to be not true; it is also open to "abuse" if the author has no intention of backing it up with necessary evidence. If metadiscourse markers can be judged either true or false, the apparent basis for characterizing metadiscourse as being "nonpropositional" collapses.
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Article 1650731912460

Subject 10. Principles of Counting
#has-images #reading-9-probability-concepts

In some cases, it's relatively easy to list and count all possible outcomes. For example, if you flip a dime in the air, there are only two possible outcomes: it will come up with either heads or tails. In other cases, there are a large number of possible outcomes. For example, imagine if you want to choose two stocks from the thousands of issues that trade on the NYSE. If one thing can be done in n 1 ways, and a second thing, given the first, can be done in n 2 ways, and so on for k things, then the number of ways the k things can be done is n 1 x n 2 x n 3 ... x n k . For example, suppose a portfolio manager is making two decisions: Which type of instrument to invest in: stocks or bonds? Which country to invest in: U.S., Canada, or Germany? The number of possible ways the manager can make these two decisions is 2 x 3 = 6. Note that the multiplication rule is applicable if there are two or more groupings. In the preceding example, there are two groups: one for investment instrume