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Flashcard 1428164840716

Tags
#cfa #cfa-level-1 #economics #microeconomics #reading-13-demand-and-supply-analysis-introduction #study-session-4
Question
Because producers have to purchase [...] the cost of production depends on both the technology and the price of those factors.
Answer
inputs in factor markets,


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rming inputs, or factors of production (such as land, labor, capital, and materials) into finished goods and services. Economists refer to the “rules” that govern this transformation as the technology of production . Because producers have to <span>purchase inputs in factor markets, the cost of production depends on both the technology and the price of those factors.<span><body><html>

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3.3. The Supply Function and the Supply Curve
between those two values, the greater is the willingness of producers to supply the good. In another reading, we will explore the cost of production in greater detail. At this point, we need to understand only the basics of cost. <span>At its simplest level, production of a good consists of transforming inputs, or factors of production (such as land, labor, capital, and materials) into finished goods and services. Economists refer to the “rules” that govern this transformation as the technology of production . Because producers have to purchase inputs in factor markets, the cost of production depends on both the technology and the price of those factors. Clearly, willingness to supply is dependent on not only the price of a producer’s output, but also additionally on the prices (i.e., costs) of the inputs necessary to produce it. For si







Flashcard 1435805027596

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #economics #microeconomics #reading-15-demand-and-supply-analysis-the-firm #section-3-analysis-of-revenue-costs-and-profit #study-session-4
Question
Average variable cost (AVC)[...]
Answer
Total variable cost divided by quantity; (TVC ÷ Q)


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Average variable cost (AVC)Total variable cost divided by quantity; (TVC ÷ Q)

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3. ANALYSIS OF REVENUE, COSTS, AND PROFITS
umber of time periods). For example, average revenue is calculated by dividing total revenue by the number of items sold. To calculate a marginal term, take the change in the total and divide by the change in the quantity number. <span>Exhibit 3 shows a summary of the terminology and formulas pertaining to profit maximization, where profit is defined as total revenue minus total economic costs. Note that the definition of profit is the economic version, which recognizes that the implicit opportunity costs of equity capital, in addition to explicit accounting costs, are economic costs. The first main category consists of terms pertaining to the revenue side of the profit equation: total revenue, average revenue, and marginal revenue. Cost terms follow with an overview of the different types of costs—total, average, and marginal. Exhibit 3. Summary of Profit, Revenue, and Cost Terms Term Calculation Profit (Economic) profit Total revenue minus total economic cost; (TR – TC) Revenue Total revenue (TR) Price times quantity (P × Q), or the sum of individual units sold times their respective prices; ∑(P i × Q i ) Average revenue (AR) Total revenue divided by quantity; (TR ÷ Q) Marginal revenue (MR) Change in total revenue divided by change in quantity; (∆TR ÷ ∆Q) Costs Total fixed cost (TFC) Sum of all fixed expenses; here defined to include all opportunity costs Total variable cost (TVC) Sum of all variable expenses, or per unit variable cost times quantity; (per unit VC × Q) Total costs (TC) Total fixed cost plus total variable cost; (TFC + TVC) Average fixed cost (AFC) Total fixed cost divided by quantity; (TFC ÷ Q) Average variable cost (AVC) Total variable cost divided by quantity; (TVC ÷ Q) Average total cost (ATC) Total cost divided by quantity; (TC ÷ Q) or (AFC + AVC) Marginal cost (MC) Change in total cost divided by change in quantity; (∆TC ÷ ∆Q) 3.1. Profit Maximization In free markets—and even in regulated market economies—profit maximization tends to promote economic welfare and a hig







Flashcard 1442518011148

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #corporate-finance #reading-35-capital-budgeting #study-session-10
Question
Occasionally the cost of the [...] project is sufficiently high that the company would do better to cease operating altogether or to shut down any part of the business that is related to the project.
Answer
regulatory/safety/environmental


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Occasionally the cost of the regulatory/safety/environmental project is sufficiently high that the company would do better to cease operating altogether or to shut down any part of the business that is related to the project.

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2. THE CAPITAL BUDGETING PROCESS
New products and services. These investments expose the company to even more uncertainties than expansion projects. These decisions are more complex and will involve more people in the decision-making process. <span>Regulatory, safety, and environmental projects. These projects are frequently required by a governmental agency, an insurance company, or some other external party. They may generate no revenue and might not be undertaken by a company maximizing its own private interests. Often, the company will accept the required investment and continue to operate. Occasionally, however, the cost of the regulatory/safety/environmental project is sufficiently high that the company would do better to cease operating altogether or to shut down any part of the business that is related to the project. Other. The projects above are all susceptible to capital budgeting analysis, and they can be accepted or rejected using the net present value (NPV) or some other criteri







Flashcard 1447704005900

Tags
#categories-of-being #sister-miriam-joseph #subcategories #trivium
Question
If the predicate exists in the subject absolutely as flowing from form, the predicate is a [...]
Answer

quality. (Suzanne is intelligent.)


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2 The predicate exists in the subject. If the predicate exists in the subject absolut ely as flowing from matt er, the predicate is a quantity. (Suzanne is tall.) If the predicate exists in the subject absolutely as fl

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Flashcard 1479801965836

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #reading-25-understanding-income-statement
Question
With real estate sales where there is doubt about the buyer’s ability to complete payments, the [...] and cost recovery method of revenue recognition are used.
Answer
installment method


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Flashcard 1479977340172

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #reading-25-understanding-income-statement #revenue-recognition
Question
For installment sales, IFRS separate the installments into the sale price, which is [...], and an interest component.
Answer
the discounted present value of the installment payments


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For installment sales, IFRS separate the installments into the sale price, which is the discounted present value of the installment payments, and an interest component.

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3.2.2. Installment Sales
rvices are rendered, independent of the period in which cash payments for those goods or services are received. This principle applies even to installment sales —sales in which proceeds are to be paid in installments over an extended period. <span>For installment sales, IFRS separate the installments into the sale price, which is the discounted present value of the installment payments, and an interest component. Revenue attributable to the sale price is recognized at the date of sale, and revenue attributable to the interest component is recognized over time.18 International standards note, how







Flashcard 1486383090956

Tags
#exam-fails #fra-introduction
Question
If a company's operating cycle lasts 2 years, which timeframe should be used to categorize current assets?
Answer
C. Two years


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Guidelines recommend upper endoscopy for patients with dyspepsia and alarm features. Alarm features include onset after age 50 years; anemia; dysphagia; odynophagia; vomiting; weight loss; family history of upper gastrointestinal malignancy; personal history of peptic ulcer disease, gastric surgery, or gastrointestinal malignancy; and abdominal mass or lymphadenopathy on examination

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Flashcard 1651290017036

Question
Guidelines recommend upper endoscopy for patients with dyspepsia and alarm features. Alarm features include onset after age [...] years; anemia; dysphagia; odynophagia; vomiting; weight loss; family history of upper gastrointestinal malignancy; personal history of peptic ulcer disease, gastric surgery, or gastrointestinal malignancy; and abdominal mass or lymphadenopathy on examination
Answer
50


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Guidelines recommend upper endoscopy for patients with dyspepsia and alarm features. Alarm features include onset after age 50 years; anemia; dysphagia; odynophagia; vomiting; weight loss; family history of upper gastrointestinal malignancy; personal history of peptic ulcer disease, gastric surgery, or gastr

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Flashcard 1651291589900

Question
Guidelines recommend upper endoscopy for patients with dyspepsia and alarm features. Alarm features include [...]
Answer
onset after age 50 years; anemia; dysphagia; odynophagia; vomiting; weight loss; family history of upper gastrointestinal malignancy; personal history of peptic ulcer disease, gastric surgery, or gastrointestinal malignancy; and abdominal mass or lymphadenopathy on examination


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Guidelines recommend upper endoscopy for patients with dyspepsia and alarm features. Alarm features include onset after age 50 years; anemia; dysphagia; odynophagia; vomiting; weight loss; family history of upper gastrointestinal malignancy; personal history of peptic ulcer disease, gastric surgery, or gastrointestinal malignancy; and abdominal mass or lymphadenopathy on examination

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For patients younger than 50 years without alarm features, a test-and-treat approach for Helicobacter pylori is reasonable and cost effective when the patient is from an area where the prevalence of H. pylori is high (such as developing countries).

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Flashcard 1651294997772

Question
For patients younger than 50 years without alarm features, a [...] approach for Helicobacter pylori is reasonable and cost effective when the patient is from an area where the prevalence of H. pylori is high (such as developing countries).
Answer
test-and-treat


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For patients younger than 50 years without alarm features, a test-and-treat approach for Helicobacter pylori is reasonable and cost effective when the patient is from an area where the prevalence of H. pylori is high (such as developing countries).</s

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proton pump inhibitor is the most appropriate first-line strategy if the patient is from an area where the prevalence of H. pylori is low.

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Flashcard 1651298143500

Question
[...] is the most appropriate first-line strategy if the patient is from an area where the prevalence of H. pylori is low.
Answer
proton pump inhibitor


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proton pump inhibitor is the most appropriate first-line strategy if the patient is from an area where the prevalence of H. pylori is low.

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An empiric trial of omeprazole would not be appropriate because it may mask a gastric ulcer or cancer.

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Flashcard 1651301551372

Question
An empiric trial of omeprazole would not be appropriate because it may mask a gastric [...].
Answer
ulcer or cancer


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An empiric trial of omeprazole would not be appropriate because it may mask a gastric ulcer or cancer.

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Eighty percent of patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis have ulcerative colitis.

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Flashcard 1651304959244

Question
Eighty percent of patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis have [...].
Answer
ulcerative colitis


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Eighty percent of patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis have ulcerative colitis.

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Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is diagnosed by measuring liver enzymes and performing cholangiography. Serum alkaline phosphatase values are 3 to 10 times the upper limit of normal, and serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are two to three times the upper limit of normal. Serum total bilirubin levels may be normal in 60% of patients. Serum antinuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies are present in 20% to 50% of patients, but antimitochondrial antibodies are rarely found in PSC

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Flashcard 1651308104972

Question
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is diagnosed by measuring liver enzymes and performing [...]. Serum alkaline phosphatase values are 3 to 10 times the upper limit of normal, and serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are two to three times the upper limit of normal. Serum total bilirubin levels may be normal in 60% of patients. Serum antinuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies are present in 20% to 50% of patients, but antimitochondrial antibodies are rarely found in PSC
Answer
cholangiography


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Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is diagnosed by measuring liver enzymes and performing cholangiography. Serum alkaline phosphatase values are 3 to 10 times the upper limit of normal, and serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are two to three times the upp

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Flashcard 1651309677836

Question
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is diagnosed by measuring liver enzymes and performing cholangiography. Serum alkaline phosphatase values are [...] times the upper limit of normal, and serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are two to three times the upper limit of normal. Serum total bilirubin levels may be normal in 60% of patients. Serum antinuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies are present in 20% to 50% of patients, but antimitochondrial antibodies are rarely found in PSC
Answer
3 to 10


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Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is diagnosed by measuring liver enzymes and performing cholangiography. Serum alkaline phosphatase values are 3 to 10 times the upper limit of normal, and serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are two to three times the upper limit of normal. Serum total bilirubin level

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Flashcard 1651311250700

Question
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is diagnosed by measuring liver enzymes and performing cholangiography. Serum alkaline phosphatase values are 3 to 10 times the upper limit of normal, and serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are [...] times the upper limit of normal. Serum total bilirubin levels may be normal in 60% of patients. Serum antinuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies are present in 20% to 50% of patients, but antimitochondrial antibodies are rarely found in PSC
Answer
two to three


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gitis (PSC) is diagnosed by measuring liver enzymes and performing cholangiography. Serum alkaline phosphatase values are 3 to 10 times the upper limit of normal, and serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are <span>two to three times the upper limit of normal. Serum total bilirubin levels may be normal in 60% of patients. Serum antinuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies are present in 20% to 50% of patie

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Flashcard 1651312823564

Question
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is diagnosed by measuring liver enzymes and performing cholangiography. Serum alkaline phosphatase values are 3 to 10 times the upper limit of normal, and serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are two to three times the upper limit of normal. Serum total bilirubin levels may be normal in 60% of patients. Serum antinuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies are present in [...] of patients, but antimitochondrial antibodies are rarely found in PSC
Answer
20% to 50%


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ine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are two to three times the upper limit of normal. Serum total bilirubin levels may be normal in 60% of patients. Serum antinuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies are present in <span>20% to 50% of patients, but antimitochondrial antibodies are rarely found in PSC<span><body><html>

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The gold standard for diagnosis of PSC is cholangiography. Diagnostic findings consist of segmental bile duct fibrosis with saccular dilatation of normal intervening areas, resulting in the characteristic “beads on a string” appearance. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) has been increasingly used and has an overall diagnostic accuracy rate of 90%.

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Flashcard 1651315969292

Question
The gold standard for diagnosis of PSC is [...]. Diagnostic findings consist of segmental bile duct fibrosis with saccular dilatation of normal intervening areas, resulting in the characteristic “beads on a string” appearance. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) has been increasingly used and has an overall diagnostic accuracy rate of 90%.
Answer
cholangiography


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The gold standard for diagnosis of PSC is cholangiography. Diagnostic findings consist of segmental bile duct fibrosis with saccular dilatation of normal intervening areas, resulting in the characteristic “beads on a string” appearance. Magn

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Flashcard 1651317542156

Question
The gold standard for diagnosis of PSC is cholangiography. Diagnostic findings consist of segmental bile duct [...] dilatation of normal intervening areas, resulting in the characteristic “beads on a string” appearance. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) has been increasingly used and has an overall diagnostic accuracy rate of 90%.
Answer
fibrosis with saccular


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The gold standard for diagnosis of PSC is cholangiography. Diagnostic findings consist of segmental bile duct fibrosis with saccular dilatation of normal intervening areas, resulting in the characteristic “beads on a string” appearance. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) has been increasingly used a

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Flashcard 1651319115020

Question
The gold standard for diagnosis of PSC is cholangiography. Diagnostic findings consist of segmental bile duct fibrosis with saccular dilatation of normal intervening areas, resulting in the characteristic “[...]” appearance. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) has been increasingly used and has an overall diagnostic accuracy rate of 90%.
Answer
beads on a string


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ml>The gold standard for diagnosis of PSC is cholangiography. Diagnostic findings consist of segmental bile duct fibrosis with saccular dilatation of normal intervening areas, resulting in the characteristic “beads on a string” appearance. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) has been increasingly used and has an overall diagnostic accuracy rate of 90%.<html>

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Flashcard 1651320687884

Question
The gold standard for diagnosis of PSC is cholangiography. Diagnostic findings consist of segmental bile duct fibrosis with saccular dilatation of normal intervening areas, resulting in the characteristic “beads on a string” appearance. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) has been increasingly used and has an overall diagnostic accuracy rate of [...]%.
Answer
90


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h saccular dilatation of normal intervening areas, resulting in the characteristic “beads on a string” appearance. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) has been increasingly used and has an overall diagnostic accuracy rate of <span>90%.<span><body><html>

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Patients with PSC and ulcerative colitis are at increased risk for colon cancer and should receive surveillance. There is no effective medical therapy for PSC

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Flashcard 1651324095756

Question
Patients with PSC and ulcerative colitis are at increased risk for [...] and should receive surveillance. There is no effective medical therapy for PSC
Answer
colon cancer


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Patients with PSC and ulcerative colitis are at increased risk for colon cancer and should receive surveillance. There is no effective medical therapy for PSC

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Flashcard 1651325668620

Question
Patients with PSC and ulcerative colitis are at increased risk for colon cancer and should receive surveillance. There is [...] effective medical therapy for PSC
Answer
no


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Patients with PSC and ulcerative colitis are at increased risk for colon cancer and should receive surveillance. There is no effective medical therapy for PSC

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PSC is generally a progressive disease that often requires liver transplantation.

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Flashcard 1651329076492

Question
PSC is generally a progressive disease that often requires [...].
Answer
liver transplantation


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PSC is generally a progressive disease that often requires liver transplantation.

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Liver biopsy is usually not necessary for the diagnosis of PSC. Liver biopsy is required for making a diagnosis of small-duct PSC when cholangiography is normal.

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Flashcard 1651332484364

Question
Liver biopsy is usually [...] necessary for the diagnosis of PSC. Liver biopsy is required for making a diagnosis of small-duct PSC when cholangiography is normal.
Answer
not


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Liver biopsy is usually not necessary for the diagnosis of PSC. Liver biopsy is required for making a diagnosis of small-duct PSC when cholangiography is normal.

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Flashcard 1651334057228

Question
Liver biopsy is usually not necessary for the diagnosis of PSC. Liver biopsy is required for making a diagnosis of [...] PSC when cholangiography is normal.
Answer
small-duct


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Liver biopsy is usually not necessary for the diagnosis of PSC. Liver biopsy is required for making a diagnosis of small-duct PSC when cholangiography is normal.

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It is therefore implausible to designate one type of discourse as being primary and the other type as being secondary when both types fulfill the same kind of communicative functions

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Periductal fibrosis with inflammation, bile duct proliferation, and ductopenia are the main histologic findings

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Flashcard 1651338775820

Question
[...] fibrosis with inflammation, bile duct proliferation, and ductopenia are the main histologic findings
Answer
Periductal


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Periductal fibrosis with inflammation, bile duct proliferation, and ductopenia are the main histologic findings

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Flashcard 1651340348684

Question
Periductal fibrosis with inflammation, [...] proliferation, and ductopenia are the main histologic findings
Answer
bile duct


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Periductal fibrosis with inflammation, bile duct proliferation, and ductopenia are the main histologic findings

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Flashcard 1651341921548

Question
Periductal fibrosis with inflammation, bile duct proliferation, and [...] are the main histologic findings
Answer
ductopenia


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Periductal fibrosis with inflammation, bile duct proliferation, and ductopenia are the main histologic findings

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IgG4-associated cholangitis may mimic PSC, but patients will usually have abnormalities in the pancreas on cross-sectional imaging.

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Flashcard 1651345067276

Question
IgG4-associated cholangitis may mimic PSC, but patients will usually have abnormalities in the [...] on cross-sectional imaging.
Answer
pancreas


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IgG4-associated cholangitis may mimic PSC, but patients will usually have abnormalities in the pancreas on cross-sectional imaging.

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High-risk ulcers are characterized by active arterial spurting or a nonbleeding visible vessel; they should be treated endoscopically with hemostatic clips, thermal therapy, or injection of sclerosants

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Flashcard 1651348213004

Question
High-risk ulcers are characterized by active arterial [...]; they should be treated endoscopically with hemostatic clips, thermal therapy, or injection of sclerosants
Answer
spurting or a nonbleeding visible vessel


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High-risk ulcers are characterized by active arterial spurting or a nonbleeding visible vessel; they should be treated endoscopically with hemostatic clips, thermal therapy, or injection of sclerosants

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Flashcard 1651349785868

Question
High-risk ulcers are characterized by active arterial spurting or a nonbleeding visible vessel; they should be treated endoscopically with [...]
Answer
hemostatic clips, thermal therapy, or injection of sclerosants


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High-risk ulcers are characterized by active arterial spurting or a nonbleeding visible vessel; they should be treated endoscopically with hemostatic clips, thermal therapy, or injection of sclerosants

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An ulcer with a visible vessel has an approximately 50% risk of rebleeding if not treated endoscopically.

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Flashcard 1651352931596

Question
An ulcer with a visible vessel has an approximately [...]% risk of rebleeding if not treated endoscopically.
Answer
50


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An ulcer with a visible vessel has an approximately 50% risk of rebleeding if not treated endoscopically.

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Clean-based ulcers rebleed in less than 5% of cases and do not require endoscopic therapy

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Flashcard 1651356077324

Question
Clean-based ulcers rebleed in less than [...]% of cases and do not require endoscopic therapy
Answer
5


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Clean-based ulcers rebleed in less than 5% of cases and do not require endoscopic therapy

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Octreotide may have a marginal benefit by decreasing the rate of nonvariceal bleeding, but it is inferior to intravenous proton pump inhibitors. Octreotide is most useful in patients with variceal bleeding

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Flashcard 1651359223052

Question
Octreotide may have a marginal benefit by decreasing the rate of nonvariceal bleeding, but it is [...] to intravenous proton pump inhibitors. Octreotide is most useful in patients with variceal bleeding
Answer
inferior


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Octreotide may have a marginal benefit by decreasing the rate of nonvariceal bleeding, but it is inferior to intravenous proton pump inhibitors. Octreotide is most useful in patients with variceal bleeding

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Flashcard 1651361058060

Question
Octreotide may have a marginal benefit by decreasing the rate of nonvariceal bleeding, but it is inferior to intravenous proton pump inhibitors. Octreotide is most useful in patients with [...] bleeding
Answer
variceal


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Octreotide may have a marginal benefit by decreasing the rate of nonvariceal bleeding, but it is inferior to intravenous proton pump inhibitors. Octreotide is most useful in patients with variceal bleeding

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Acute kidney injury occurs in approximately 20% of hospitalized patients with cirrhosis; such patients should receive a fluid challenge (usually with 25% albumin) to evaluate fluid responsiveness before hepatorenal syndrome can be diagnosed.

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Flashcard 1651364203788

Question
Acute kidney injury occurs in approximately 20% of hospitalized patients with cirrhosis; such patients should receive a fluid challenge (usually with [...]) to evaluate fluid responsiveness before hepatorenal syndrome can be diagnosed.
Answer
25% albumin


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Acute kidney injury occurs in approximately 20% of hospitalized patients with cirrhosis; such patients should receive a fluid challenge (usually with 25% albumin) to evaluate fluid responsiveness before hepatorenal syndrome can be diagnosed.

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In approximately 70% of patients with cirrhosis and AKI, the precipitant is prerenal, from sources such as infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, excessive diuresis, or diarrhea.

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Flashcard 1651367349516

Question
In approximately 70% of patients with cirrhosis and AKI, the precipitant is [...] from sources such as infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, excessive diuresis, or diarrhea.
Answer
prerenal,


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In approximately 70% of patients with cirrhosis and AKI, the precipitant is prerenal, from sources such as infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, excessive diuresis, or diarrhea.

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Flashcard 1651368922380

Question
In approximately 70% of patients with cirrhosis and AKI, the precipitant is prerenal, from sources such as [...].
Answer
infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, excessive diuresis, or diarrhea


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In approximately 70% of patients with cirrhosis and AKI, the precipitant is prerenal, from sources such as infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, excessive diuresis, or diarrhea.

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HRS diagnostic criteria consist of (1) an increase in the serum creatinine level to greater than 1.5 g/dL (132.6 µmol/L) over days to weeks, (2) lack of response to an albumin challenge of 1 g/kg/d for 2 days, and (3) the absence of shock, nephrotoxic drugs, active urine sediment, proteinuria greater than 500 mg/d, and ultrasound evidence of parenchymal kidney disease or obstruction.

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Flashcard 1651389369612

Question
HRS diagnostic criteria consist of (1) [...], (2) lack of response to an albumin challenge of 1 g/kg/d for 2 days, and (3) the absence of shock, nephrotoxic drugs, active urine sediment, proteinuria greater than 500 mg/d, and ultrasound evidence of parenchymal kidney disease or obstruction.
Answer
an increase in the serum creatinine level to greater than 1.5 g/dL (132.6 µmol/L) over days to weeks


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HRS diagnostic criteria consist of (1) an increase in the serum creatinine level to greater than 1.5 g/dL (132.6 µmol/L) over days to weeks, (2) lack of response to an albumin challenge of 1 g/kg/d for 2 days, and (3) the absence of shock, nephrotoxic drugs, active urine sediment, proteinuria greater than 500 mg/d, and u

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Flashcard 1651391466764

Question
HRS diagnostic criteria consist of (1) an increase in the serum creatinine level to greater than 1.5 g/dL (132.6 µmol/L) over days to weeks, (2) [...] and (3) the absence of shock, nephrotoxic drugs, active urine sediment, proteinuria greater than 500 mg/d, and ultrasound evidence of parenchymal kidney disease or obstruction.
Answer
lack of response to an albumin challenge of 1 g/kg/d for 2 days,


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HRS diagnostic criteria consist of (1) an increase in the serum creatinine level to greater than 1.5 g/dL (132.6 µmol/L) over days to weeks, (2) lack of response to an albumin challenge of 1 g/kg/d for 2 days, and (3) the absence of shock, nephrotoxic drugs, active urine sediment, proteinuria greater than 500 mg/d, and ultrasound evidence of parenchymal kidney disease or obstruction.

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Flashcard 1651393826060

Question
HRS diagnostic criteria consist of (1) an increase in the serum creatinine level to greater than 1.5 g/dL (132.6 µmol/L) over days to weeks, (2) lack of response to an albumin challenge of 1 g/kg/d for 2 days, and (3) [...]
Answer
the absence of shock, nephrotoxic drugs, active urine sediment, proteinuria greater than 500 mg/d, and ultrasound evidence of parenchymal kidney disease or obstruction.


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ead>HRS diagnostic criteria consist of (1) an increase in the serum creatinine level to greater than 1.5 g/dL (132.6 µmol/L) over days to weeks, (2) lack of response to an albumin challenge of 1 g/kg/d for 2 days, and (3) the absence of shock, nephrotoxic drugs, active urine sediment, proteinuria greater than 500 mg/d, and ultrasound evidence of parenchymal kidney disease or obstruction.<html>

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Norepinephrine with albumin infusion is effective for patients with type 1 HRS who are in the ICU.

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Flashcard 1651399331084

Question
[...] is effective for patients with type 1 HRS who are in the ICU.
Answer
Norepinephrine with albumin infusion


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Norepinephrine with albumin infusion is effective for patients with type 1 HRS who are in the ICU.

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Midodrine, octreotide, and albumin are the appropriate treatments for type 1 HRS in patients outside of the ICU.

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Flashcard 1651403525388

Question
[...] are the appropriate treatments for type 1 HRS in patients outside of the ICU.
Answer
Midodrine, octreotide, and albumin


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Midodrine, octreotide, and albumin are the appropriate treatments for type 1 HRS in patients outside of the ICU.

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Terlipressin is effective for type 1 HRS

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Flashcard 1651407457548

Question
Terlipressin is effective for type [...] HRS
Answer
1


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Terlipressin is effective for type 1 HRS

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Patients with cholangitis should receive immediate broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy; if rapid improvement is not seen, urgent endoscopic stone removal should be performed.

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Flashcard 1651415846156

Question
Patients with cholangitis should receive immediate broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy; if rapid improvement is not seen, urgent [...] should be performed.
Answer
endoscopic stone removal


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Patients with cholangitis should receive immediate broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy; if rapid improvement is not seen, urgent endoscopic stone removal should be performed.

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The presence of fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice (Charcot triad) is consistent with acute cholangitis, and ERCP is indicated

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Flashcard 1651420302604

Question
The presence of fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice ([...] triad) is consistent with acute cholangitis, and ERCP is indicated
Answer
Charcot


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The presence of fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice (Charcot triad) is consistent with acute cholangitis, and ERCP is indicated

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Acute cholangitis is usually caused by Escherichia coli, Klebsiella species, Pseudomonas species, and enterococci and can progress to septic shock with or without liver abscess formation.

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Flashcard 1651425283340

Question
Acute cholangitis is usually caused by [...] and can progress to septic shock with or without liver abscess formation.
Answer
Escherichia coli, Klebsiella species, Pseudomonas species, and enterococci


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Acute cholangitis is usually caused by Escherichia coli, Klebsiella species, Pseudomonas species, and enterococci and can progress to septic shock with or without liver abscess formation.

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Percutaneous cholecystostomy could be considered if this patient had acute cholecystitis

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Flashcard 1651431574796

Question
Percutaneous cholecystostomy could be considered if this patient had acute [...]
Answer
cholecystitis


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Percutaneous cholecystostomy could be considered if this patient had acute cholecystitis

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Findings of gallbladder inflammation may include thickening of the gallbladder wall (>2 mm), intramural gas, and pericholecystic fluid

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Flashcard 1651435244812

Question
Findings of gallbladder inflammation may include thickening of the gallbladder wall (>[...] mm), intramural gas, and pericholecystic fluid
Answer
2


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Findings of gallbladder inflammation may include thickening of the gallbladder wall (>2 mm), intramural gas, and pericholecystic fluid

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Flashcard 1651437604108

Question
Findings of gallbladder inflammation may include thickening of the gallbladder wall (>2 mm), [...] fluid
Answer
intramural gas, and pericholecystic


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Findings of gallbladder inflammation may include thickening of the gallbladder wall (>2 mm), intramural gas, and pericholecystic fluid

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Risk factors for NSAID-related gastrointestinal complications include a history of peptic ulcer disease or other gastrointestinal bleeding event; Helicobacter pyloriinfection; age 65 years or older; concomitant use of aspirin (of any dose), anticoagulants, other NSAIDs, or glucocorticoids; high-dose NSAID use; and chronic comorbid illness.

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Flashcard 1651444681996

Question
Risk factors for NSAID-related gastrointestinal complications include a history of peptic ulcer disease or other gastrointestinal bleeding event; Helicobacter pyloriinfection; age [...] years or older; concomitant use of aspirin (of any dose), anticoagulants, other NSAIDs, or glucocorticoids; high-dose NSAID use; and chronic comorbid illness.
Answer
65


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Risk factors for NSAID-related gastrointestinal complications include a history of peptic ulcer disease or other gastrointestinal bleeding event; Helicobacter pyloriinfection; age 65 years or older; concomitant use of aspirin (of any dose), anticoagulants, other NSAIDs, or glucocorticoids; high-dose NSAID use; and chronic comorbid illness.</h

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Changing this patient's aspirin to an enteric-coated formulation will not reduce the risk of NSAID-induced gastrointestinal injury.

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Flashcard 1651447827724

Question
Changing this patient's aspirin to an enteric-coated formulation will [...] the risk of NSAID-induced gastrointestinal injury.
Answer
not reduce


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Changing this patient's aspirin to an enteric-coated formulation will not reduce the risk of NSAID-induced gastrointestinal injury.

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Common criteria for diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis consist of clinical features (pain, recurrent attacks of pancreatitis, weight loss) with objective findings of steatorrhea and pancreatic calcifications.

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Flashcard 1651450973452

Question
Common criteria for diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis consist of clinical features ([...]) with objective findings of steatorrhea and pancreatic calcifications.
Answer
pain, recurrent attacks of pancreatitis, weight loss


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Common criteria for diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis consist of clinical features (pain, recurrent attacks of pancreatitis, weight loss) with objective findings of steatorrhea and pancreatic calcifications.

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Flashcard 1651452546316

Question
Common criteria for diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis consist of clinical features (pain, recurrent attacks of pancreatitis, weight loss) with objective findings of [...] and pancreatic calcifications.
Answer
steatorrhea


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Common criteria for diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis consist of clinical features (pain, recurrent attacks of pancreatitis, weight loss) with objective findings of steatorrhea and pancreatic calcifications.

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Flashcard 1651454119180

Question
Common criteria for diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis consist of clinical features (pain, recurrent attacks of pancreatitis, weight loss) with objective findings of steatorrhea and [...]
Answer
pancreatic calcifications.


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Common criteria for diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis consist of clinical features (pain, recurrent attacks of pancreatitis, weight loss) with objective findings of steatorrhea and pancreatic calcifications.

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The most appropriate treatment for chronic pancreatitis is pancreatic enzymes

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Flashcard 1651458051340

Question
The most appropriate treatment for chronic pancreatitis is [...]
Answer
pancreatic enzymes


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The most appropriate treatment for chronic pancreatitis is pancreatic enzymes

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Serologic testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies should be performed in patients with suspected celiac disease, which may present with weight loss, steatorrhea, and nutritional deficiencies.

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Flashcard 1651461197068

Question
Serologic testing for [...] antibodies should be performed in patients with suspected celiac disease, which may present with weight loss, steatorrhea, and nutritional deficiencies.
Answer
tissue transglutaminase


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Serologic testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies should be performed in patients with suspected celiac disease, which may present with weight loss, steatorrhea, and nutritional deficiencies.

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Flashcard 1651462769932

Question
Serologic testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies should be performed in patients with suspected celiac disease, which may present with [...].
Answer
weight loss, steatorrhea, and nutritional deficiencies


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Serologic testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies should be performed in patients with suspected celiac disease, which may present with weight loss, steatorrhea, and nutritional deficiencies.

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IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the screening test of choice for celiac disease and is both sensitive and specific; initial testing for celiac disease should be done while the patient is consuming gluten

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Flashcard 1651465915660

Question
IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the screening test of choice for celiac disease and is both sensitive and specific; initial testing for celiac disease should be done while the patient is [...] gluten
Answer
consuming


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IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the screening test of choice for celiac disease and is both sensitive and specific; initial testing for celiac disease should be done while the patient is consuming gluten

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anti–Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies (ASCA) have been proposed as a serologic method for differentiating Crohn disease from ulcerative colitis, they are neither adequately sensitive nor specific and can lead to false-positive results if used as a screening test for gastrointestinal symptoms.

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Flashcard 1651469061388

Question
anti–Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies (ASCA) have been proposed as a serologic method for differentiating [...], they are neither adequately sensitive nor specific and can lead to false-positive results if used as a screening test for gastrointestinal symptoms.
Answer
Crohn disease from ulcerative colitis


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anti–Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies (ASCA) have been proposed as a serologic method for differentiating Crohn disease from ulcerative colitis, they are neither adequately sensitive nor specific and can lead to false-positive results if used as a screening test for gastrointestinal symptoms.

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Upper endoscopy with small-bowel biopsies is performed in patients with a consistent clinical picture and positive serologic studies to confirm the diagnosis of celiac disease. Characteristic biopsy findings include intraepithelial lymphocytosis, crypt hyperplasia, and villous blunting.

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Flashcard 1651472207116

Question
Upper endoscopy with small-bowel biopsies is performed in patients with a consistent clinical picture and positive serologic studies to confirm the diagnosis of celiac disease. Characteristic biopsy findings include [...]
Answer
intraepithelial lymphocytosis, crypt hyperplasia, and villous blunting.


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/head>Upper endoscopy with small-bowel biopsies is performed in patients with a consistent clinical picture and positive serologic studies to confirm the diagnosis of celiac disease. Characteristic biopsy findings include intraepithelial lymphocytosis, crypt hyperplasia, and villous blunting.<html>

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Routine complete blood count, serum chemistry studies, thyroid function studies, stool studies for ova and parasites, and abdominal imaging are unnecessary in establishing the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome

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Flashcard 1651501042956

Question
Routine complete blood count, serum chemistry studies, thyroid function studies, stool studies for ova and parasites, and abdominal imaging are unnecessary in establishing the diagnosis of [...] syndrome
Answer
irritable bowel


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Routine complete blood count, serum chemistry studies, thyroid function studies, stool studies for ova and parasites, and abdominal imaging are unnecessary in establishing the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome

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The American College of Gastroenterology recommends a simple definition of IBS: abdominal pain or discomfort that occurs in association with altered bowel habits over a period of at least 3 months. The diagnosis of IBS is further subtyped into diarrhea predominant (IBS-D), constipation predominant (IBS-C), or mixed (IBS-M), which alternates between diarrhea and constipation

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Flashcard 1651504188684

Question
The American College of Gastroenterology recommends a simple definition of IBS: abdominal pain or discomfort that occurs in association with altered bowel habits over a period of at least 3 months. The diagnosis of IBS is further subtyped into [...] predominant (IBS-D), constipation predominant (IBS-C), or mixed (IBS-M), which alternates between diarrhea and constipation
Answer
diarrhea


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American College of Gastroenterology recommends a simple definition of IBS: abdominal pain or discomfort that occurs in association with altered bowel habits over a period of at least 3 months. The diagnosis of IBS is further subtyped into <span>diarrhea predominant (IBS-D), constipation predominant (IBS-C), or mixed (IBS-M), which alternates between diarrhea and constipation<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651505761548

Question
The American College of Gastroenterology recommends a simple definition of IBS: abdominal pain or discomfort that occurs in association with altered bowel habits over a period of at least [...] months. The diagnosis of IBS is further subtyped into diarrhea predominant (IBS-D), constipation predominant (IBS-C), or mixed (IBS-M), which alternates between diarrhea and constipation
Answer
3


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The American College of Gastroenterology recommends a simple definition of IBS: abdominal pain or discomfort that occurs in association with altered bowel habits over a period of at least 3 months. The diagnosis of IBS is further subtyped into diarrhea predominant (IBS-D), constipation predominant (IBS-C), or mixed (IBS-M), which alternates between diarrhea and constipa

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Flashcard 1651507334412

Question
The American College of Gastroenterology recommends a simple definition of IBS: abdominal pain or discomfort that occurs in association with altered bowel habits over a period of at least 3 months. The diagnosis of IBS is further subtyped into diarrhea predominant (IBS-D), [...] predominant (IBS-C), or mixed (IBS-M), which alternates between diarrhea and constipation
Answer
constipation


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ology recommends a simple definition of IBS: abdominal pain or discomfort that occurs in association with altered bowel habits over a period of at least 3 months. The diagnosis of IBS is further subtyped into diarrhea predominant (IBS-D), <span>constipation predominant (IBS-C), or mixed (IBS-M), which alternates between diarrhea and constipation<span><body><html>

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The passage of mucus is commonly reported in IBS, so this symptom alone does not warrant colonoscopy.

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Flashcard 1651510480140

Question
The passage of mucus is commonly reported in IBS, so this symptom alone [...] warrant colonoscopy.
Answer
does not


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The passage of mucus is commonly reported in IBS, so this symptom alone does not warrant colonoscopy.

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Before pursuing Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy, noninvasive testing for H. pylorishould be performed to confirm infection.

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Flashcard 1651513888012

Question
Before pursuing Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy, [...] for H. pylorishould be performed to confirm infection.
Answer
noninvasive testing


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Before pursuing Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy, noninvasive testing for H. pylorishould be performed to confirm infection.

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Noninvasive H. pylori testing modalities include serology, the fecal antigen test, or the urea breath test.

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Flashcard 1651517033740

Question
Noninvasive H. pylori testing modalities include [...]
Answer
serology, the fecal antigen test, or the urea breath test.


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Noninvasive H. pylori testing modalities include serology, the fecal antigen test, or the urea breath test.

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Serologic testing for H. pylori has limitations in that it does not test for active H. pylori infection and has poor positive predictive value.

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Flashcard 1651520441612

Question
Serologic testing for H. pylori has limitations in that it does not test for [...]
Answer
active H. pylori infection and has poor positive predictive value.


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Serologic testing for H. pylori has limitations in that it does not test for active H. pylori infection and has poor positive predictive value.

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Fecal antigen testing and urea breath testing offer a more accurate means of noninvasive testing for H. pylori, as both of these test modalities assess for the presence of active infection.

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Flashcard 1651523587340

Question
Fecal antigen testing and urea breath testing offer a more accurate means of noninvasive testing for H. pylori, as both of these test modalities assess for the presence of [...]
Answer
active infection.


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Fecal antigen testing and urea breath testing offer a more accurate means of noninvasive testing for H. pylori, as both of these test modalities assess for the presence of active infection.

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Empiric treatment for H. pylori is not appropriate because the diagnosis of H. pylori should be made before initiating treatment.

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Flashcard 1651526733068

Question
Empiric treatment for H. pylori is not appropriate because the [...] of H. pylori should be made before initiating treatment.
Answer
diagnosis


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Empiric treatment for H. pylori is not appropriate because the diagnosis of H. pylori should be made before initiating treatment.

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Upper endoscopy would be appropriate for patients whose symptoms do not respond to H. pylori treatment or PPI therapy. Patients older than 50 years or with alarm features should be evaluated with upper endoscopy.

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Flashcard 1651529878796

Question
Upper endoscopy would be appropriate for patients whose symptoms do not respond to [...]. Patients older than 50 years or with alarm features should be evaluated with upper endoscopy.
Answer
H. pylori treatment or PPI therapy


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Upper endoscopy would be appropriate for patients whose symptoms do not respond to H. pylori treatment or PPI therapy. Patients older than 50 years or with alarm features should be evaluated with upper endoscopy.

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Flashcard 1651531451660

Question
Upper endoscopy would be appropriate for patients whose symptoms do not respond to H. pylori treatment or PPI therapy. Patients older than [...] years or with alarm features should be evaluated with upper endoscopy.
Answer
50


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Upper endoscopy would be appropriate for patients whose symptoms do not respond to H. pylori treatment or PPI therapy. Patients older than 50 years or with alarm features should be evaluated with upper endoscopy.

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Flashcard 1651533024524

Question
Upper endoscopy would be appropriate for patients whose symptoms do not respond to H. pylori treatment or PPI therapy. Patients older than 50 years or with [...] should be evaluated with upper endoscopy.
Answer
alarm features


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Upper endoscopy would be appropriate for patients whose symptoms do not respond to H. pylori treatment or PPI therapy. Patients older than 50 years or with alarm features should be evaluated with upper endoscopy.

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Wilson disease should be considered in all patients younger than 40 years of age who have unexplained liver disease.

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Flashcard 1651536170252

Question
Wilson disease should be considered in all patients younger than [...] years of age who have unexplained liver disease.
Answer
40


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Wilson disease should be considered in all patients younger than 40 years of age who have unexplained liver disease.

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Young patients with Wilson disease tend to present with acute liver failure; older patients present with chronic liver disease and/or neurologic manifestations.

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Flashcard 1651539578124

Question
Young patients with Wilson disease tend to present with [...]; older patients present with chronic liver disease and/or neurologic manifestations.
Answer
acute liver failure


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Young patients with Wilson disease tend to present with acute liver failure; older patients present with chronic liver disease and/or neurologic manifestations.

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Flashcard 1651541150988

Question
Young patients with Wilson disease tend to present with acute liver failure; older patients present with [...] and/or neurologic manifestations.
Answer
chronic liver disease


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Young patients with Wilson disease tend to present with acute liver failure; older patients present with chronic liver disease and/or neurologic manifestations.

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Flashcard 1651542723852

Question
Young patients with Wilson disease tend to present with acute liver failure; older patients present with chronic liver disease and/or [...] manifestations.
Answer
neurologic


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Young patients with Wilson disease tend to present with acute liver failure; older patients present with chronic liver disease and/or neurologic manifestations.

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When Wilson disease causes acute hepatitis, usually in young patients, the sudden release of copper from liver cells can also induce hemolytic anemia

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Flashcard 1651546131724

Question
When Wilson disease causes acute hepatitis, usually in young patients, the sudden release of [...] from liver cells can also induce hemolytic anemia
Answer
copper


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When Wilson disease causes acute hepatitis, usually in young patients, the sudden release of copper from liver cells can also induce hemolytic anemia

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Flashcard 1651547704588

Question
When Wilson disease causes acute hepatitis, usually in young patients, the sudden release of copper from liver cells can also induce [...]
Answer
hemolytic anemia


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When Wilson disease causes acute hepatitis, usually in young patients, the sudden release of copper from liver cells can also induce hemolytic anemia

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The presence of a low alkaline phosphatase level (copper interferes with the synthesis of alkaline phosphatase enzymes), a moderate elevation of aminotransferase levels plus hemolytic anemia making wilson disease is more likely

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Flashcard 1651551636748

Question
The presence of a low alkaline phosphatase level ([...]), a moderate elevation of aminotransferase levels plus hemolytic anemia making wilson disease is more likely
Answer
copper interferes with the synthesis of alkaline phosphatase enzymes


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The presence of a low alkaline phosphatase level (copper interferes with the synthesis of alkaline phosphatase enzymes), a moderate elevation of aminotransferase levels plus hemolytic anemia making wilson disease is more likely

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Flashcard 1651553209612

Question
The presence of a low alkaline phosphatase level (copper interferes with the synthesis of alkaline phosphatase enzymes), a moderate elevation of aminotransferase levels plus hemolytic anemia making [...] is more likely
Answer
wilson disease


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The presence of a low alkaline phosphatase level (copper interferes with the synthesis of alkaline phosphatase enzymes), a moderate elevation of aminotransferase levels plus hemolytic anemia making wilson disease is more likely

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Flashcard 1651554782476

Question
The presence of a low alkaline phosphatase level (copper interferes with the synthesis of alkaline phosphatase enzymes), a moderate elevation of aminotransferase levels plus [...] anemia making wilson disease is more likely
Answer
hemolytic


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The presence of a low alkaline phosphatase level (copper interferes with the synthesis of alkaline phosphatase enzymes), a moderate elevation of aminotransferase levels plus hemolytic anemia making wilson disease is more likely

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The most common screening test for Wilson disease is serum ceruloplasmin, which is reduced; elevated urine excretion of copper is ascertained to verify the presumptive diagnosis of Wilson disease

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Flashcard 1651557928204

Question
The most common screening test for Wilson disease is serum [...], which is reduced; elevated urine excretion of copper is ascertained to verify the presumptive diagnosis of Wilson disease
Answer
ceruloplasmin


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The most common screening test for Wilson disease is serum ceruloplasmin, which is reduced; elevated urine excretion of copper is ascertained to verify the presumptive diagnosis of Wilson disease

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Flashcard 1651559501068

Question
The most common screening test for Wilson disease is serum ceruloplasmin, which is [...] elevated urine excretion of copper is ascertained to verify the presumptive diagnosis of Wilson disease
Answer
reduced;


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The most common screening test for Wilson disease is serum ceruloplasmin, which is reduced; elevated urine excretion of copper is ascertained to verify the presumptive diagnosis of Wilson disease

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Flashcard 1651561073932

Question
The most common screening test for Wilson disease is serum ceruloplasmin, which is reduced; elevated [...] is ascertained to verify the presumptive diagnosis of Wilson disease
Answer
urine excretion of copper


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The most common screening test for Wilson disease is serum ceruloplasmin, which is reduced; elevated urine excretion of copper is ascertained to verify the presumptive diagnosis of Wilson disease

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liver biopsy is typically obtained to confirm the diagnosis of Wilson disease. Liver biopsy demonstrates excessive intrahepatic copper.

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Flashcard 1651564219660

Question
liver biopsy is typically obtained to confirm the diagnosis of Wilson disease. Liver biopsy demonstrates excessive [...].
Answer
intrahepatic copper


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liver biopsy is typically obtained to confirm the diagnosis of Wilson disease. Liver biopsy demonstrates excessive intrahepatic copper.

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Kayser-Fleischer rings, noted on ophthalmologic examination, indicate copper deposition in the Descemet membrane of the iris.in case of wilson disease

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Flashcard 1651568151820

Question
[...], noted on ophthalmologic examination, indicate copper deposition in the Descemet membrane of the iris.in case of wilson disease
Answer
Kayser-Fleischer rings


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Kayser-Fleischer rings, noted on ophthalmologic examination, indicate copper deposition in the Descemet membrane of the iris.in case of wilson disease

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Flashcard 1651569724684

Question
Kayser-Fleischer rings, noted on ophthalmologic examination, indicate [...] deposition in the Descemet membrane of the iris.in case of wilson disease
Answer
copper


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Kayser-Fleischer rings, noted on ophthalmologic examination, indicate copper deposition in the Descemet membrane of the iris.in case of wilson disease

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Patients with acute liver failure due to Wilson disease rarely recover and should be urgently referred for liver transplantation.

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Flashcard 1651572870412

Question
Patients with acute liver failure due to Wilson disease rarely recover and should be urgently referred for [...].
Answer
liver transplantation


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Patients with acute liver failure due to Wilson disease rarely recover and should be urgently referred for liver transplantation.

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Acetaminophen hepatotoxicity and herpes hepatitis present with very high aminotransferase levels, often over 5000 U/L.

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Flashcard 1651576016140

Question
Acetaminophen hepatotoxicity and herpes hepatitis present with very high aminotransferase levels, often over [...] U/L.
Answer
5000


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Acetaminophen hepatotoxicity and herpes hepatitis present with very high aminotransferase levels, often over 5000 U/L.

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The finding of a gallbladder polyp larger than 1 cm is an indication for cholecystectomy, even if the patient is asymptomatic.

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Flashcard 1651579161868

Question
The finding of a gallbladder polyp larger than [...] is an indication for cholecystectomy, even if the patient is asymptomatic.
Answer
1 cm


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The finding of a gallbladder polyp larger than 1 cm is an indication for cholecystectomy, even if the patient is asymptomatic.

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In the absence of gallstones, a gallbladder polyp smaller than 1 cm can be followed with serial ultrasound examinations unless the patient is symptomatic or has primary sclerosing cholangitis. For patients with gallstones and any size polyp, cholecystectomy is usually recommended.

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Flashcard 1651583094028

Question
In the absence of gallstones, a gallbladder polyp smaller than 1 cm can be followed with serial ultrasound examinations unless the patient is [...]. For patients with gallstones and any size polyp, cholecystectomy is usually recommended.
Answer
symptomatic or has primary sclerosing cholangitis


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In the absence of gallstones, a gallbladder polyp smaller than 1 cm can be followed with serial ultrasound examinations unless the patient is symptomatic or has primary sclerosing cholangitis. For patients with gallstones and any size polyp, cholecystectomy is usually recommended.

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Flashcard 1651584666892

Question
In the absence of gallstones, a gallbladder polyp smaller than 1 cm can be followed with serial ultrasound examinations unless the patient is symptomatic or has primary sclerosing cholangitis. For patients with gallstones and any size polyp, [...] is usually recommended.
Answer
cholecystectomy


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the absence of gallstones, a gallbladder polyp smaller than 1 cm can be followed with serial ultrasound examinations unless the patient is symptomatic or has primary sclerosing cholangitis. For patients with gallstones and any size polyp, <span>cholecystectomy is usually recommended.<span><body><html>

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Patients with uncomplicated gallstone-induced acute pancreatitis should undergo cholecystectomy prior to hospital discharge to prevent recurrent attacks

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Flashcard 1651591220492

Question
Patients with uncomplicated gallstone-induced acute pancreatitis should undergo [...] prior to hospital discharge to prevent recurrent attacks
Answer
cholecystectomy


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Patients with uncomplicated gallstone-induced acute pancreatitis should undergo cholecystectomy prior to hospital discharge to prevent recurrent attacks

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Elevation of the alanine aminotransferase concentration is the most clinically useful laboratory test predicting gallstone pancreatitis

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Flashcard 1651596201228

Question
Elevation of the [...] concentration is the most clinically useful laboratory test predicting gallstone pancreatitis
Answer
alanine aminotransferase


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Elevation of the alanine aminotransferase concentration is the most clinically useful laboratory test predicting gallstone pancreatitis

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Cholecystokinin hepatobiliary (CCK-HIDA) scintigraphy is most commonly used for evaluation of cholecystitis, biliary obstruction, and suspected gallbladder dysfunction

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Flashcard 1651600919820

Question
Cholecystokinin hepatobiliary (CCK-HIDA) scintigraphy is most commonly used for evaluation of [...]
Answer
cholecystitis, biliary obstruction, and suspected gallbladder dysfunction


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Cholecystokinin hepatobiliary (CCK-HIDA) scintigraphy is most commonly used for evaluation of cholecystitis, biliary obstruction, and suspected gallbladder dysfunction

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Treatment with an anti–tumor necrosis factor agent is effective for induction and maintenance of remission in Crohn disease and is generally considered to be safe during pregnancy (FDA pregnancy category B).

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Flashcard 1651613764876

Question
Treatment with an anti–tumor necrosis factor agent is effective for induction and maintenance of remission in Crohn disease and is generally considered to be [...] during pregnancy (FDA pregnancy category B).
Answer
safe


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Treatment with an anti–tumor necrosis factor agent is effective for induction and maintenance of remission in Crohn disease and is generally considered to be safe during pregnancy (FDA pregnancy category B).

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Flashcard 1651615337740

Question
Treatment with an anti–tumor necrosis factor agent is effective for induction and maintenance of remission in Crohn disease and is generally considered to be safe during pregnancy (FDA pregnancy category [...]).
Answer
B


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html>Treatment with an anti–tumor necrosis factor agent is effective for induction and maintenance of remission in Crohn disease and is generally considered to be safe during pregnancy (FDA pregnancy category B).<html>

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The previously used treatment approach for Crohn disease (CD) was to (1) initiate therapy with 5-aminosalicylate drugs such as mesalamine at diagnosis; (2) begin thiopurine therapy with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine if a patient requires repeated courses of glucocorticoids; and (3) begin therapy with anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agents if these other therapies are unsuccessful.

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Flashcard 1651619269900

Question
The previously used treatment approach for Crohn disease (CD) was to (1) [...]; (2) begin thiopurine therapy with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine if a patient requires repeated courses of glucocorticoids; and (3) begin therapy with anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agents if these other therapies are unsuccessful.
Answer
initiate therapy with 5-aminosalicylate drugs such as mesalamine at diagnosis


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The previously used treatment approach for Crohn disease (CD) was to (1) initiate therapy with 5-aminosalicylate drugs such as mesalamine at diagnosis; (2) begin thiopurine therapy with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine if a patient requires repeated courses of glucocorticoids; and (3) begin therapy with anti–tumor necrosis factor (

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Flashcard 1651620842764

Question
The previously used treatment approach for Crohn disease (CD) was to (1) initiate therapy with 5-aminosalicylate drugs such as mesalamine at diagnosis; (2) [...]; and (3) begin therapy with anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agents if these other therapies are unsuccessful.
Answer
begin thiopurine therapy with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine if a patient requires repeated courses of glucocorticoids


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The previously used treatment approach for Crohn disease (CD) was to (1) initiate therapy with 5-aminosalicylate drugs such as mesalamine at diagnosis; (2) begin thiopurine therapy with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine if a patient requires repeated courses of glucocorticoids; and (3) begin therapy with anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agents if these other therapies are unsuccessful.

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Flashcard 1651622415628

Question
The previously used treatment approach for Crohn disease (CD) was to (1) initiate therapy with 5-aminosalicylate drugs such as mesalamine at diagnosis; (2) begin thiopurine therapy with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine if a patient requires repeated courses of glucocorticoids; and (3) [...] if these other therapies are unsuccessful.
Answer
begin therapy with anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agents


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hn disease (CD) was to (1) initiate therapy with 5-aminosalicylate drugs such as mesalamine at diagnosis; (2) begin thiopurine therapy with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine if a patient requires repeated courses of glucocorticoids; and (3) <span>begin therapy with anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) agents if these other therapies are unsuccessful. <span><body><html>

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Many experts have abandoned the use of 5- aminosalicylates entirely for CD except perhaps for those with mild Crohn colitis

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Flashcard 1651625561356

Question
Many experts have abandoned the use of 5- aminosalicylates entirely for CD except perhaps for those with [...] Crohn colitis
Answer
mild


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Many experts have abandoned the use of 5- aminosalicylates entirely for CD except perhaps for those with mild Crohn colitis

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The three anti-TNF agents approved for CD are infliximab, adalimumab, and certolizumab. Because certolizumab is pegylated, it should have very little, if any, placental transfer and therefore is favored by some clinicians in a pregnant patient over the other two agents.

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Flashcard 1651628707084

Question
The three anti-TNF agents approved for CD are [...]. Because certolizumab is pegylated, it should have very little, if any, placental transfer and therefore is favored by some clinicians in a pregnant patient over the other two agents.
Answer
infliximab, adalimumab, and certolizumab


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The three anti-TNF agents approved for CD are infliximab, adalimumab, and certolizumab. Because certolizumab is pegylated, it should have very little, if any, placental transfer and therefore is favored by some clinicians in a pregnant patient over the other two agents

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Flashcard 1651630279948

Question
The three anti-TNF agents approved for CD are infliximab, adalimumab, and certolizumab. Because [...] is pegylated, it should have very little, if any, placental transfer and therefore is favored by some clinicians in a pregnant patient over the other two agents.
Answer
certolizumab


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The three anti-TNF agents approved for CD are infliximab, adalimumab, and certolizumab. Because certolizumab is pegylated, it should have very little, if any, placental transfer and therefore is favored by some clinicians in a pregnant patient over the other two agents.

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Controlled ileal-release budesonide is effective for ileocolonic CD, but it would not be effective in this patient with left-sided colitis. In addition, it is classified as category C for use during pregnancy.

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Flashcard 1651633425676

Question
Controlled ileal-release budesonide is effective for ileocolonic CD, but it would not be effective in this patient with left-sided colitis. In addition, it is classified as category [...] for use during pregnancy.
Answer
C


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Controlled ileal-release budesonide is effective for ileocolonic CD, but it would not be effective in this patient with left-sided colitis. In addition, it is classified as category C for use during pregnancy.

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Mesalamine may be used to treat ulcerative colitis, but it is not effective in most patients with CD.

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Flashcard 1651636571404

Question
Mesalamine may be used to treat [...], but it is not effective in most patients with CD.
Answer
ulcerative colitis


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Mesalamine may be used to treat ulcerative colitis, but it is not effective in most patients with CD.

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Methotrexate may be effective for inducing and maintaining remission in CD, but it is contraindicated during pregnancy. Methotrexate is a classified as category X for use in pregnancy because it may cause fetal death and/or congenital abnormalities.

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Flashcard 1651639717132

Question
Methotrexate may be effective for inducing and maintaining remission in CD, but it is contraindicated during pregnancy. Methotrexate is a classified as category [...] for use in pregnancy because it may cause fetal death and/or congenital abnormalities.
Answer
X


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Methotrexate may be effective for inducing and maintaining remission in CD, but it is contraindicated during pregnancy. Methotrexate is a classified as category X for use in pregnancy because it may cause fetal death and/or congenital abnormalities.

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A low-dose tricyclic antidepressant may be effective in the treatment of functional dyspepsia when symptoms do not respond to proton pump inhibitor or H 2 -blocker therapy.

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Flashcard 1651642862860

Question
A low-dose [...] may be effective in the treatment of functional dyspepsia when symptoms do not respond to proton pump inhibitor or H 2 -blocker therapy.
Answer
tricyclic antidepressant


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A low-dose tricyclic antidepressant may be effective in the treatment of functional dyspepsia when symptoms do not respond to proton pump inhibitor or H 2 -blocker therapy.

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Clinical trials have not demonstrated an added benefit of high-dose PPI therapy compared with standard-dose therapy.in functional dyspepsia

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Flashcard 1651646795020

Question
Clinical trials have not demonstrated an added benefit of high-dose PPI therapy compared with standard-dose therapy.in [...]
Answer
functional dyspepsia


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Clinical trials have not demonstrated an added benefit of high-dose PPI therapy compared with standard-dose therapy.in functional dyspepsia

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The prokinetic agent metoclopramide has demonstrated limited efficacy. The benefits of its use should be weighed against the substantial risk of potential neurologic side effects, which include akathisia (nervousness, restlessness, anxiety, agitation), parkinsonism (bradykinesia, resting tremor, and rigidity), and tardive dyskinesia (involuntary, repetitive, tic- like movements that involve primarily the facial muscles but also the extremities, digits, hips, or torso).

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Flashcard 1651649940748

Question
The prokinetic agent metoclopramide has demonstrated limited efficacy. The benefits of its use should be weighed against the substantial risk of potential neurologic side effects, which include akathisia ([...]), parkinsonism (bradykinesia, resting tremor, and rigidity), and tardive dyskinesia (involuntary, repetitive, tic- like movements that involve primarily the facial muscles but also the extremities, digits, hips, or torso).
Answer
nervousness, restlessness, anxiety, agitation


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html>The prokinetic agent metoclopramide has demonstrated limited efficacy. The benefits of its use should be weighed against the substantial risk of potential neurologic side effects, which include akathisia (nervousness, restlessness, anxiety, agitation), parkinsonism (bradykinesia, resting tremor, and rigidity), and tardive dyskinesia (involuntary, repetitive, tic- like movements that involve primarily the facial muscles but also the

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Flashcard 1651651513612

Question
The prokinetic agent metoclopramide has demonstrated limited efficacy. The benefits of its use should be weighed against the substantial risk of potential neurologic side effects, which include akathisia (nervousness, restlessness, anxiety, agitation), parkinsonism (bradykinesia, resting tremor, and rigidity), and tardive dyskinesia ([...]).
Answer
involuntary, repetitive, tic- like movements that involve primarily the facial muscles but also the extremities, digits, hips, or torso


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hould be weighed against the substantial risk of potential neurologic side effects, which include akathisia (nervousness, restlessness, anxiety, agitation), parkinsonism (bradykinesia, resting tremor, and rigidity), and tardive dyskinesia (<span>involuntary, repetitive, tic- like movements that involve primarily the facial muscles but also the extremities, digits, hips, or torso).<span><body><html>

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Patients with long-standing colitis associated with inflammatory bowel disease are at increased risk for colon cancer and should undergo surveillance colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning after 8 to 10 years of disease

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Flashcard 1651675893004

Question
Patients with long-standing colitis associated with inflammatory bowel disease are at increased risk for colon cancer and should undergo surveillance colonoscopy every [...] years beginning after 8 to 10 years of disease
Answer
1 to 2


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Patients with long-standing colitis associated with inflammatory bowel disease are at increased risk for colon cancer and should undergo surveillance colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning after 8 to 10 years of disease

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Flashcard 1651677465868

Question
Patients with long-standing colitis associated with inflammatory bowel disease are at increased risk for colon cancer and should undergo surveillance colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning after [...] years of disease
Answer
8 to 10


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Patients with long-standing colitis associated with inflammatory bowel disease are at increased risk for colon cancer and should undergo surveillance colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning after 8 to 10 years of disease

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In patients with inflammatory bowel disease and concomitant primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), the risk of colon cancer is particularly high, and it is recommended that such patients begin yearly surveillance as soon as the diagnosis of PSC is made.

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Flashcard 1651680611596

Question
In patients with inflammatory bowel disease and concomitant primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), the risk of colon cancer is particularly high, and it is recommended that such patients begin [...] surveillance as soon as the diagnosis of PSC is made.
Answer
yearly


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In patients with inflammatory bowel disease and concomitant primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), the risk of colon cancer is particularly high, and it is recommended that such patients begin yearly surveillance as soon as the diagnosis of PSC is made.

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Flashcard 1651682184460

Question
In patients with inflammatory bowel disease and concomitant primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), the risk of colon cancer is particularly high, and it is recommended that such patients begin yearly surveillance as soon as [...] is made.
Answer
the diagnosis of PSC


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body>In patients with inflammatory bowel disease and concomitant primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), the risk of colon cancer is particularly high, and it is recommended that such patients begin yearly surveillance as soon as the diagnosis of PSC is made.<body><html>

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For patients with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than 25 years old.

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Flashcard 1651685592332

Question
For patients with Lynch syndrome ([...]), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than 25 years old.
Answer
hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer


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For patients with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal c

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Flashcard 1651687165196

Question
For patients with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every [...] years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than 25 years old.
Answer
1 to 2


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For patients with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than 25 years old.</spa

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Flashcard 1651688738060

Question
For patients with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age [...] years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than 25 years old.
Answer
20 to 25


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For patients with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than 25 years old.

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Flashcard 1651690310924

Question
For patients with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or [...] years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than 25 years old.
Answer
2 to 5


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For patients with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than 25 years old.

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Flashcard 1651691883788

Question
For patients with Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than [...] years old.
Answer
25


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tal cancer), recommended colorectal cancer screening is colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years beginning at age 20 to 25 years, or 2 to 5 years earlier than the youngest age at diagnosis of colorectal cancer if the affected relative was less than <span>25 years old.<span><body><html>

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Patients with ulcerative colitis involving the rectum are not at increased risk for colorectal cancer. In these patients, average-risk colorectal cancer screening with colonoscopy is recommended beginning at age 50 years and should be repeated every 10 years.

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Patients with ulcerative colitis involving the rectum are not at increased risk for colorectal cancer. In these patients, average-risk colorectal cancer screening with colonoscopy is recommended beginning at age 50 years and should be repeated every 10 years.

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Flashcard 1651696864524

Question
Patients with ulcerative colitis involving the [...] are not at increased risk for colorectal cancer. In these patients, average-risk colorectal cancer screening with colonoscopy is recommended beginning at age 50 years and should be repeated every 10 years.
Answer
rectum


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Patients with ulcerative colitis involving the rectum are not at increased risk for colorectal cancer. In these patients, average-risk colorectal cancer screening with colonoscopy is recommended beginning at age 50 years and should be r

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Flashcard 1651698699532

Question
Patients with ulcerative colitis involving the rectum are not at increased risk for colorectal cancer. In these patients, average-risk colorectal cancer screening with colonoscopy is recommended beginning at age [...] years and should be repeated every 10 years.
Answer
50


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ead><head>Patients with ulcerative colitis involving the rectum are not at increased risk for colorectal cancer. In these patients, average-risk colorectal cancer screening with colonoscopy is recommended beginning at age 50 years and should be repeated every 10 years.<html>

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Flashcard 1651700272396

Question
Patients with ulcerative colitis involving the rectum are not at increased risk for colorectal cancer. In these patients, average-risk colorectal cancer screening with colonoscopy is recommended beginning at age 50 years and should be repeated every [...] years.
Answer
10


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ith ulcerative colitis involving the rectum are not at increased risk for colorectal cancer. In these patients, average-risk colorectal cancer screening with colonoscopy is recommended beginning at age 50 years and should be repeated every <span>10 years.<span><body><html>

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The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.

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Flashcard 1651703418124

Question
The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients ([...]) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.
Answer
a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age


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The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.

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Flashcard 1651704990988

Question
The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age [...] years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.
Answer
40 years, or 10


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colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age <span>40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651706563852

Question
The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every [...] years.
Answer
5


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ed adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every <span>5 years.<span><body><html>

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in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, outpatient therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole), and as-needed analgesia

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Flashcard 1651710496012

Question
in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, [...] therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole), and as-needed analgesia
Answer
outpatient


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in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, outpatient therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazol

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Flashcard 1651712068876

Question
in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, outpatient therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as [...]), and as-needed analgesia
Answer
ciprofloxacin and metronidazole


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in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, outpatient therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as <span>ciprofloxacin and metronidazole), and as-needed analgesia<span><body><html>

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For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), hospitalization is recommended for administration of intravenous antimicrobial agents and observation.

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Flashcard 1651715214604

Question
For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), [...] is recommended for administration of intravenous antimicrobial agents and observation.
Answer
hospitalization


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For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), hospitalization is recommended for administration of intravenous antimicrobial agents and observation.

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Flashcard 1651716787468

Question
For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), hospitalization is recommended for administration of [...] and observation.
Answer
intravenous antimicrobial agents


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For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), hospitalization is recommended for administration of intravenous antimicrobial agents and observation.

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Percutaneous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >3 cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with antibiotics alone and close follow-up.

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Flashcard 1651719933196

Question
Percutaneous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >[...] cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with antibiotics alone and close follow-up.
Answer
3


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Percutaneous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >3 cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with antibiotics alone and close follow-up.</ht

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Flashcard 1651721506060

Question
Percutaneous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >3 cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with [...] and close follow-up.
Answer
antibiotics alone


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ous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >3 cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with <span>antibiotics alone and close follow-up.<span><body><html>

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Colonoscopy is recommended after recovery because diverticulitis may be precipitated by a sigmoid cancer;

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Flashcard 1651724651788

Question
Colonoscopy is recommended after recovery because diverticulitis may be precipitated by a [...]
Answer
sigmoid cancer;


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Colonoscopy is recommended after recovery because diverticulitis may be precipitated by a sigmoid cancer;

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For patients with large (≥10 mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is 3 years.

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Flashcard 1651728059660

Question
For patients with large (≥[...] mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is 3 years.
Answer
10


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For patients with large (≥10 mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is 3 years.

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Flashcard 1651729632524

Question
For patients with large (≥10 mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is [...] years.
Answer
3


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For patients with large (≥10 mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is 3 years.

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Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have no malignant potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are neoplastic.

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Flashcard 1651732778252

Question
Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have [...] potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are neoplastic.
Answer
no malignant


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Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have no malignant potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are neoplastic.

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Flashcard 1651734351116

Question
Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have no malignant potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are [...].
Answer
neoplastic


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Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have no malignant potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are neoplastic.

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A 1-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated polyps, including hyperplastic polyps, sessile serrated polyps, traditional serrated adenomas, and possibly also adenomatous polyps. Patients with serrated polyposis syndrome are at increased risk of colorectal cancer.

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Flashcard 1651737496844

Question
A [...]-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated polyps, including hyperplastic polyps, sessile serrated polyps, traditional serrated adenomas, and possibly also adenomatous polyps. Patients with serrated polyposis syndrome are at increased risk of colorectal cancer.
Answer
1


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A 1-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated po

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Flashcard 1651739069708

Question
A 1-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated polyps, including [...]. Patients with serrated polyposis syndrome are at increased risk of colorectal cancer.
Answer
hyperplastic polyps, sessile serrated polyps, traditional serrated adenomas, and possibly also adenomatous polyps


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A 1-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated polyps, including hyperplastic polyps, sessile serrated polyps, traditional serrated adenomas, and possibly also adenomatous polyps. Patients with serrated polyposis syndrome are at increased risk of colorectal cancer.

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The recommended postpolypectomy interval for patients with sessile serrated polyps smaller than 10 mm is 5 years

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Flashcard 1651742215436

Question
The recommended postpolypectomy interval for patients with sessile serrated polyps smaller than 10 mm is [...] years
Answer
5


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The recommended postpolypectomy interval for patients with sessile serrated polyps smaller than 10 mm is 5 years

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A 10-year average-risk interval is recommended for patients with small rectosigmoid hyperplastic polyps

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Flashcard 1651745361164

Question
A [...]-year average-risk interval is recommended for patients with small rectosigmoid hyperplastic polyps
Answer
10


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A 10-year average-risk interval is recommended for patients with small rectosigmoid hyperplastic polyps

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Observation is recommended for adult patients with asymptomatic gallstones.

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Flashcard 1651748506892

Question
[...] is recommended for adult patients with asymptomatic gallstones.
Answer
Observation


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Observation is recommended for adult patients with asymptomatic gallstones.

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The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.

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Flashcard 1651751652620

Question
The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a [...]-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.
Answer
15


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d>The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.</b

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Flashcard 1651753225484

Question
The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as [...] hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.
Answer
3


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s episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as <span>3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651754798348

Question
The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is [...] jaundice.
Answer
no


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ccasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is <span>no jaundice.<span><body><html>

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Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn disease.

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Flashcard 1651757944076

Question
Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal manifestation of [...].
Answer
Crohn disease


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>Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn disease.<html>

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Flashcard 1651759516940

Question
[...] is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn disease.
Answer
Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG)


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Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal mani

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extraintestinal manifistation like aphthous ulcer,arthralgia, inflammatory eye diseases, and pyoderma gangrenosum PG are seen in approximately 10% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease.

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Flashcard 1651763449100

Question
extraintestinal manifistation like [...] are seen in approximately 10% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease.
Answer
aphthous ulcer,arthralgia, inflammatory eye diseases, and pyoderma gangrenosum PG


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extraintestinal manifistation like aphthous ulcer,arthralgia, inflammatory eye diseases, and pyoderma gangrenosum PG are seen in approximately 10% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease.

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Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with Crohn disease

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Flashcard 1651766594828

Question
[...] is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with Crohn disease
Answer
Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE)


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Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc defic

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Flashcard 1651768167692

Question
Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to [...] deficiency. AE has been associated with Crohn disease
Answer
zinc


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ml>Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with Crohn disease<html>

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Flashcard 1651769740556

Question
Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with [...]
Answer
Crohn disease


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tis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with <span>Crohn disease<span><body><html>

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Erythema nodosum is the most common cutaneous manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules presenting as barely appreciable convexities on the skin surface, with a reddish hue in the acute phase. EN is frequently bilateral and symmetrical, and it usually occurs on the distal lower extremities, but it may also appear on the trunk, thighs, or upper extremities

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Flashcard 1651772886284

Question
Erythema nodosum is the most common cutaneous manifestation of [...], occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules presenting as barely appreciable convexities on the skin surface, with a reddish hue in the acute phase. EN is frequently bilateral and symmetrical, and it usually occurs on the distal lower extremities, but it may also appear on the trunk, thighs, or upper extremities
Answer
inflammatory bowel disease


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Erythema nodosum is the most common cutaneous manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules presenting as barely appreciable convexities on the skin surface, with a r

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Flashcard 1651774459148

Question
[...] is the most common cutaneous manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules presenting as barely appreciable convexities on the skin surface, with a reddish hue in the acute phase. EN is frequently bilateral and symmetrical, and it usually occurs on the distal lower extremities, but it may also appear on the trunk, thighs, or upper extremities
Answer
Erythema nodosum


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Erythema nodosum is the most common cutaneous manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules p

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Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic fistulas.

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Flashcard 1651777604876

Question
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a [...]. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic fistulas.
Answer
scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule


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Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic fistulas.

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Flashcard 1651779177740

Question
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic [...].
Answer
fistulas


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Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic <span>fistulas. <span><body><html>

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Giardiasis should be considered in patients with chronic diarrhea and exposure to young children or potentially contaminated water such as lakes and streams.

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Flashcard 1651782323468

Question
Giardiasis should be considered in patients with chronic diarrhea and exposure to [...] or potentially contaminated water such as lakes and streams.
Answer
young children


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Giardiasis should be considered in patients with chronic diarrhea and exposure to young children or potentially contaminated water such as lakes and streams.

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symptoms of giardiasis typically occur 1 to 2 weeks after infection and include watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever is distinctly unusual

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Flashcard 1651786255628

Question
symptoms of giardiasis typically occur [...] weeks after infection and include watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever is distinctly unusual
Answer
1 to 2


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symptoms of giardiasis typically occur 1 to 2 weeks after infection and include watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever

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Flashcard 1651788090636

Question
symptoms of giardiasis typically occur 1 to 2 weeks after infection and include [...]. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever is distinctly unusual
Answer
watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching


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symptoms of giardiasis typically occur 1 to 2 weeks after infection and include watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever is distinctly unusual

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Glucocorticoids are the cornerstone of treatment for autoimmune pancreatitis.

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Flashcard 1651791236364

Question
[...] are the cornerstone of treatment for autoimmune pancreatitis.
Answer
Glucocorticoids


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Glucocorticoids are the cornerstone of treatment for autoimmune pancreatitis.

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Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common

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Flashcard 1651794382092

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the [...] decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common
Answer
fifth


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Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a

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Flashcard 1651795954956

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features ([...]), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common
Answer
focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct


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pan> Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (<span>focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in

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Flashcard 1651797789964

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum [...] level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common
Answer
IgG4


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the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum <span>IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorti

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Flashcard 1651799362828

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement ([...]). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common
Answer
sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis


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of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (<span>sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651800935692

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to [...], but relapse is common
Answer
glucocorticoids


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reless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to <span>glucocorticoids, but relapse is common<span><body><html>

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A biliary metal stent is generally reserved for long-term palliation of malignant biliary strictures and is not required for IgG4-associated cholangitis.

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Flashcard 1651804081420

Question
A biliary metal stent is generally reserved for long-term [...] of malignant biliary strictures and is not required for IgG4-associated cholangitis.
Answer
palliation


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A biliary metal stent is generally reserved for long-term palliation of malignant biliary strictures and is not required for IgG4-associated cholangitis.

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Treat small-bowel bleeding with push enteroscopy.

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Flashcard 1651807227148

Question
Treat small-bowel bleeding with [...].
Answer
push enteroscopy


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Treat small-bowel bleeding with push enteroscopy.

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Enteroscopy should be performed after a negative upper endoscopy and colonoscopy or after a positive capsule endoscopy.

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Flashcard 1651810372876

Question
Enteroscopy should be performed after a [...] or after a positive capsule endoscopy.
Answer
negative upper endoscopy and colonoscopy


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Enteroscopy should be performed after a negative upper endoscopy and colonoscopy or after a positive capsule endoscopy.

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Intraoperative endoscopy is reserved for patients with active bleeding from the small bowel in whom both endoscopy and angiography have failed to identify the small-bowel bleeding source

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Flashcard 1651814042892

Question
Intraoperative endoscopy is reserved for patients with active bleeding from the small bowel in whom both endoscopy and angiography have [...] to identify the small-bowel bleeding source
Answer
failed


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Intraoperative endoscopy is reserved for patients with active bleeding from the small bowel in whom both endoscopy and angiography have failed to identify the small-bowel bleeding source

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Linaclotide is FDA approved for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with constipation in adults; like lubiprostone, it is second-line therapy for patients whose symptoms have not responded to standard laxative therapy

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Flashcard 1651817188620

Question
[...] is FDA approved for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with constipation in adults; like lubiprostone, it is second-line therapy for patients whose symptoms have not responded to standard laxative therapy
Answer
Linaclotide


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Linaclotide is FDA approved for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with constipation in adults; like lubiprostone, it is second-line therapy for patients whose symptoms have not responded

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The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.

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Flashcard 1651824004364

Question
The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins [...] can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.
Answer
A, D, E, and K


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The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.

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Flashcard 1651825577228

Question
The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including [...] gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.
Answer
Roux-en-Y


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The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.

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Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid inflammation, and rough and/or dry skin

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Flashcard 1651828722956

Question
Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased [...] inflammation, and rough and/or dry skin
Answer
vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid


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Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid inflammation, and rough and/or dry skin

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Flashcard 1651830295820

Question
Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid inflammation, and [...] skin
Answer
rough and/or dry


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Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid inflammation, and rough and/or dry skin

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Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency

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Flashcard 1651833441548

Question
Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to [...] and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency
Answer
subacute combined degeneration


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Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency

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Flashcard 1651835014412

Question
Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with [...]. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency
Answer
macrocytic anemia and leukopenia


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Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency

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Flashcard 1651836587276

Question
Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin [...] deficiency
Answer
B12


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Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency<html>

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In patients with Barrett esophagus and no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in 3 to 5 years.

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Flashcard 1651839995148

Question
In patients with Barrett esophagus and no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in [...] years.
Answer
3 to 5


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In patients with Barrett esophagus and no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in 3 to 5 years.

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endoscopic assessment for Barrett esophagus (BE) in patients with chronic reflux symptoms may be appropriate in specific patients. It is reasonable to consider screening men older than 50 years with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms for more than 5 years and additional risk factors (nocturnal reflux symptoms, hiatal hernia, elevated BMI, tobacco use, and intra-abdominal distribution of fat) to detect esophageal adenocarcinoma and BE.

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Flashcard 1651843140876

Question
endoscopic assessment for Barrett esophagus (BE) in patients with chronic reflux symptoms may be appropriate in specific patients. It is reasonable to consider screening men older than [...] years with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms for more than 5 years and additional risk factors (nocturnal reflux symptoms, hiatal hernia, elevated BMI, tobacco use, and intra-abdominal distribution of fat) to detect esophageal adenocarcinoma and BE.
Answer
50


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endoscopic assessment for Barrett esophagus (BE) in patients with chronic reflux symptoms may be appropriate in specific patients. It is reasonable to consider screening men older than 50 years with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms for more than 5 years and additional risk factors (nocturnal reflux symptoms, hiatal hernia, elevated BMI, tobacco use, and

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