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Flashcard 1432999824652

Tags
#aristotle #five-intelectual-virtues #trivium
Question

Aristotle analyzed virtues into moral and intellectual virtues

  • Theoretical
    • [...]
    • [...]
    • Nous – reason
Answer
Sophia – wisdom

Episteme – scientific knowledge, empirical knowledge


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r Analytics and Nicomachean Ethics he identified five intellectual virtues as the five ways the soul arrives at truth by affirmation or denial. These are then separated into three classes: Theoretical Sophia – wisdom <span>Episteme – scientific knowledge, empirical knowledge Nous – reason Practical Phronesis – practical wisdom/prudence Productive Techne – craft knowledge, art, skill Subjacent intellectual v

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Intellectual virtue - Wikipedia
ct thinking. They include: a sense of justice, perseverance, empathy, integrity, intellectual courage, confidence in reason, and autonomy. Contents [hide] 1 Aristotle 2 See also 3 References 4 External links Aristotle[edit] <span>Aristotle analyzed virtues into moral and intellectual virtues (or dianoetic virtues, from the Greek aretai dianoetikai). In the Posterior Analytics and Nicomachean Ethics he identified five intellectual virtues as the five ways the soul arrives at truth by affirmation or denial. These are then separated into three classes: Theoretical Sophia – wisdom Episteme – scientific knowledge, empirical knowledge Nous – reason Practical Phronesis – practical wisdom/prudence Productive Techne – craft knowledge, art, skill Subjacent intellectual virtues in Aristotle: Euboulia – deliberating well, deliberative excellence; thinking properly about the right end. Sunesis – understanding, sagacity, astuteness, consciousness of why something is as it is. For example, the understanding you have of why a situation is as it is, prior to having phronesis. Gnomê – judgement and consideration; allowing us to make equitable or fair decisions. Deinotes – cleverness; the ability to carry out actions so as to achieve a goal. See also[edit] Critical thinking Epistemic virtue Intellectual dishonesty Paideia Virtue ethics References[edit] Aristotle Nicomachean Ethics Book VI R. M. Paul Critical thi







Flashcard 1446865407244

Tags
#3-1-profit-maximization #cfa-level-1 #economics #microeconomics #reading-15-demand-and-supply-analysis-the-firm #section-3-analysis-of-revenue-costs-and-profit #study-session-4
Question

Overall, the functions of profit are as follows:

  • Spurs [...] and [...]

Answer
innovation

new technology.


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sfy consumer demand. Allocates resources to their most-efficient use; input factors flow from sectors with economic losses to sectors with economic profit, where profit reflects goods most desired by society. Spurs <span>innovation and the development of new technology. Stimulates business investment and economic growth.<span><body><html>

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3. ANALYSIS OF REVENUE, COSTS, AND PROFITS
Total variable cost divided by quantity; (TVC ÷ Q) Average total cost (ATC) Total cost divided by quantity; (TC ÷ Q) or (AFC + AVC) Marginal cost (MC) Change in total cost divided by change in quantity; (∆TC ÷ ∆Q) <span>3.1. Profit Maximization In free markets—and even in regulated market economies—profit maximization tends to promote economic welfare and a higher standard of living, and creates wealth for investors. Profit motivates businesses to use resources efficiently and to concentrate on activities in which they have a competitive advantage. Most economists believe that profit maximization promotes allocational efficiency—that resources flow into their highest valued uses. Overall, the functions of profit are as follows: Rewards entrepreneurs for risk taking when pursuing business ventures to satisfy consumer demand. Allocates resources to their most-efficient use; input factors flow from sectors with economic losses to sectors with economic profit, where profit reflects goods most desired by society. Spurs innovation and the development of new technology. Stimulates business investment and economic growth. There are three approaches to calculate the point of profit maximization. First, given that profit is the difference between total revenue and total costs, maximum profit occurs at the output level where this difference is the greatest. Second, maximum profit can also be calculated by comparing revenue and cost for each individual unit of output that is produced and sold. A business increases profit through greater sales as long as per-unit revenue exceeds per-unit cost on the next unit of output sold. Profit maximization takes place at the point where the last individual output unit breaks even. Beyond this point, total profit decreases because the per-unit cost is higher than the per-unit revenue from successive output units. A third approach compares the revenue generated by each resource unit with the cost of that unit. Profit contribution occurs when the revenue from an input unit exceeds its cost. The point of profit maximization is reached when resource units no longer contribute to profit. All three approaches yield the same profit-maximizing quantity of output. (These approaches will be explained in greater detail later.) Because profit is the difference between revenue and cost, an understanding of profit maximization requires that we examine both of those components. Revenue comes from the demand for the firm’s products, and cost comes from the acquisition and utilization of the firm’s inputs in the production of those products. 3.1.1. Total, Average, and Marginal Revenue This section briefly examines demand and revenue in preparation for addressing cost. Unless the firm is a pu







Flashcard 1481653226764

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #expense-recognition #reading-25-understanding-income-statement
Question
Examples of intangible long-lived assets with a finite useful life are:

An acquired [...]

Answer
mailing list


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commonly applied to this process for physical long-lived assets such as plant and equipment (land is not depreciated), and amortisation is the term commonly applied to this process for intangible long-lived assets with a finite useful life.32 <span>Examples of intangible long-lived assets with a finite useful life include an acquired mailing list, an acquired patent with a set expiration date, and an acquired copyright with a set legal life. The term “amortisation” is also commonly applied to the systematic allocation of a premium or discount relative to the face value of a fixed-income security over the life of the securit

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4.2. Issues in Expense Recognition
the amount of future expenses resulting from its warranties, to recognize an estimated warranty expense in the period of the sale, and to update the expense as indicated by experience over the life of the warranty. <span>4.2.3. Depreciation and Amortisation Companies commonly incur costs to obtain long-lived assets. Long-lived assets are assets expected to provide economic benefits over a future period of time greater than one year. Examples are land (property), plant, equipment, and intangible assets (assets lacking physical substance) such as trademarks. The costs of most long-lived assets are allocated over the period of time during which they provide economic benefits. The two main types of long-lived assets whose costs are not allocated over time are land and those intangible assets with indefinite useful lives. Depreciation is the process of systematically allocating costs of long-lived assets over the period during which the assets are expected to provide economic benefits. “Depreciation” is the term commonly applied to this process for physical long-lived assets such as plant and equipment (land is not depreciated), and amortisation is the term commonly applied to this process for intangible long-lived assets with a finite useful life.32 Examples of intangible long-lived assets with a finite useful life include an acquired mailing list, an acquired patent with a set expiration date, and an acquired copyright with a set legal life. The term “amortisation” is also commonly applied to the systematic allocation of a premium or discount relative to the face value of a fixed-income security over the life of the security. IFRS allow two alternative models for valuing property, plant, and equipment: the cost model and the revaluation model.33 Under the cost model, the depreciable amount of that asset (cost less residual value) is allocated on a systematic basis over the remaining useful life of the asset. Under the cost model, the asset is reported at its cost less any accumulated depreciation. Under the revaluation model, the asset is reported at its fair value. The revaluation model is not permitted under US GAAP. Here, we will focus only on the cost model. There are two other differences between IFRS and US GAAP to note: IFRS require each component of an asset to be depreciated separately and US GAAP do not require component depreciation; and IFRS require an annual review of residual value and useful life, and US GAAP do not explicitly require such a review. The method used to compute depreciation should reflect the pattern over which the economic benefits of the asset are expected to be consumed. IFRS do not prescribe a particular method for computing depreciation but note that several methods are commonly used, such as the straight-line method, diminishing balance method (accelerated depreciation), and the units of production method (depreciation varies depending upon production or usage). The straight-line method allocates evenly the cost of long-lived assets less estimated residual value over the estimated useful life of an asset. (The term “straight line” derives from the fact that the annual depreciation expense, if represented as a line graph over time, would be a straight line. In addition, a plot of the cost of the asset minus the cumulative amount of annual depreciation expense, if represented as a line graph over time, would be a straight line with a negative downward slope.) Calculating depreciation and amortisation requires two significant estimates: the estimated useful life of an asset and the estimated residual value (also known as “salvage value”) of an asset. Under IFRS, the residual value is the amount that the company expects to receive upon sale of the asset at the end of its useful life. Example 9 assumes that an item of equipment is depreciated using the straight-line method and illustrates how the annual depreciation expense varies under different estimates of the useful life and estimated residual value of an asset. As shown, annual depreciation expense is sensitive to both the estimated useful life and to the estimated residual value. <span><body><html>







Flashcard 1637153639692

Tags
#reading-9-probability-concepts
Question

There are cases in which we may adjust an empirical probability to account for perceptions of changing relationships in this cased we are talking about a [...]

Answer
Subjective probability


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The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.

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Flashcard 1651703418124

Question
The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients ([...]) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.
Answer
a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age


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The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.

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Flashcard 1651704990988

Question
The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age [...] years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.
Answer
40 years, or 10


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colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age <span>40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every 5 years.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651706563852

Question
The 2012 American College of Physicians Guidance Statement on colorectal cancer screening recommends initiation of screening in high- risk patients (a first-degree relative with colon cancer or advanced adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every [...] years.
Answer
5


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ed adenoma diagnosed at age <60 years, or two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age) at age 40 years, or 10 years younger than the earliest colon cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is earlier. Colonoscopy is repeated every <span>5 years.<span><body><html>

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in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, outpatient therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole), and as-needed analgesia

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Flashcard 1651710496012

Question
in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, [...] therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole), and as-needed analgesia
Answer
outpatient


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in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, outpatient therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazol

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Flashcard 1651712068876

Question
in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, outpatient therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as [...]), and as-needed analgesia
Answer
ciprofloxacin and metronidazole


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in a healthy, immunocompetent patient with diverticulitis and mild symptoms, outpatient therapy is appropriate and should consist of a liquid diet, oral antimicrobial agents that cover colonic organisms and include anaerobic coverage (such as <span>ciprofloxacin and metronidazole), and as-needed analgesia<span><body><html>

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For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), hospitalization is recommended for administration of intravenous antimicrobial agents and observation.

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Flashcard 1651715214604

Question
For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), [...] is recommended for administration of intravenous antimicrobial agents and observation.
Answer
hospitalization


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For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), hospitalization is recommended for administration of intravenous antimicrobial agents and observation.

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Flashcard 1651716787468

Question
For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), hospitalization is recommended for administration of [...] and observation.
Answer
intravenous antimicrobial agents


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For older, frail, sicker patients, and in those with potential complications of diverticulitis (such as peritonitis or fistula formation), hospitalization is recommended for administration of intravenous antimicrobial agents and observation.

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Percutaneous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >3 cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with antibiotics alone and close follow-up.

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Flashcard 1651719933196

Question
Percutaneous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >[...] cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with antibiotics alone and close follow-up.
Answer
3


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Percutaneous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >3 cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with antibiotics alone and close follow-up.</ht

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Flashcard 1651721506060

Question
Percutaneous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >3 cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with [...] and close follow-up.
Answer
antibiotics alone


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ous drainage is typically indicated in patients with diverticulitis with larger abscesses (often considered to be >3 cm) that are procedurally amenable in those without evidence of peritonitis. Smaller abscesses are usually treated with <span>antibiotics alone and close follow-up.<span><body><html>

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Colonoscopy is recommended after recovery because diverticulitis may be precipitated by a sigmoid cancer;

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Flashcard 1651724651788

Question
Colonoscopy is recommended after recovery because diverticulitis may be precipitated by a [...]
Answer
sigmoid cancer;


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Colonoscopy is recommended after recovery because diverticulitis may be precipitated by a sigmoid cancer;

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For patients with large (≥10 mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is 3 years.

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Flashcard 1651728059660

Question
For patients with large (≥[...] mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is 3 years.
Answer
10


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For patients with large (≥10 mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is 3 years.

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Flashcard 1651729632524

Question
For patients with large (≥10 mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is [...] years.
Answer
3


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For patients with large (≥10 mm) or dysplastic sessile serrated polyps or traditional serrated adenomas, the recommended postpolypectomy surveillance colonoscopy interval is 3 years.

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Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have no malignant potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are neoplastic.

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Flashcard 1651732778252

Question
Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have [...] potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are neoplastic.
Answer
no malignant


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Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have no malignant potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are neoplastic.

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Flashcard 1651734351116

Question
Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have no malignant potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are [...].
Answer
neoplastic


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Hyperplastic polyps are believed to have no malignant potential, whereas sessile serrated polyps and traditional serrated adenomas are neoplastic.

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A 1-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated polyps, including hyperplastic polyps, sessile serrated polyps, traditional serrated adenomas, and possibly also adenomatous polyps. Patients with serrated polyposis syndrome are at increased risk of colorectal cancer.

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Flashcard 1651737496844

Question
A [...]-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated polyps, including hyperplastic polyps, sessile serrated polyps, traditional serrated adenomas, and possibly also adenomatous polyps. Patients with serrated polyposis syndrome are at increased risk of colorectal cancer.
Answer
1


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A 1-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated po

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Flashcard 1651739069708

Question
A 1-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated polyps, including [...]. Patients with serrated polyposis syndrome are at increased risk of colorectal cancer.
Answer
hyperplastic polyps, sessile serrated polyps, traditional serrated adenomas, and possibly also adenomatous polyps


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A 1-year surveillance interval is recommended for patients with serrated polyposis syndrome. Serrated polyposis syndrome is a rare condition characterized by multiple or large serrated polyps, including hyperplastic polyps, sessile serrated polyps, traditional serrated adenomas, and possibly also adenomatous polyps. Patients with serrated polyposis syndrome are at increased risk of colorectal cancer.

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The recommended postpolypectomy interval for patients with sessile serrated polyps smaller than 10 mm is 5 years

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Flashcard 1651742215436

Question
The recommended postpolypectomy interval for patients with sessile serrated polyps smaller than 10 mm is [...] years
Answer
5


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The recommended postpolypectomy interval for patients with sessile serrated polyps smaller than 10 mm is 5 years

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A 10-year average-risk interval is recommended for patients with small rectosigmoid hyperplastic polyps

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Flashcard 1651745361164

Question
A [...]-year average-risk interval is recommended for patients with small rectosigmoid hyperplastic polyps
Answer
10


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A 10-year average-risk interval is recommended for patients with small rectosigmoid hyperplastic polyps

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Observation is recommended for adult patients with asymptomatic gallstones.

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Flashcard 1651748506892

Question
[...] is recommended for adult patients with asymptomatic gallstones.
Answer
Observation


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Observation is recommended for adult patients with asymptomatic gallstones.

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The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.

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Flashcard 1651751652620

Question
The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a [...]-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.
Answer
15


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d>The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.</b

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Flashcard 1651753225484

Question
The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as [...] hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.
Answer
3


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s episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as <span>3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is no jaundice.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651754798348

Question
The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic, severe abdominal pain typically in the epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is [...] jaundice.
Answer
no


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ccasionally in the right lower or mid- abdomen. The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3 hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting, and there is <span>no jaundice.<span><body><html>

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Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn disease.

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Flashcard 1651757944076

Question
Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal manifestation of [...].
Answer
Crohn disease


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>Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn disease.<html>

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Flashcard 1651759516940

Question
[...] is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn disease.
Answer
Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG)


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Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG) is characterized by painful pustules that rapidly ulcerate and expand, with edematous, rolled, or undermined borders that may have a violaceous hue; PG may be an extraintestinal mani

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extraintestinal manifistation like aphthous ulcer,arthralgia, inflammatory eye diseases, and pyoderma gangrenosum PG are seen in approximately 10% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease.

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Flashcard 1651763449100

Question
extraintestinal manifistation like [...] are seen in approximately 10% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease.
Answer
aphthous ulcer,arthralgia, inflammatory eye diseases, and pyoderma gangrenosum PG


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extraintestinal manifistation like aphthous ulcer,arthralgia, inflammatory eye diseases, and pyoderma gangrenosum PG are seen in approximately 10% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease.

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Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with Crohn disease

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Flashcard 1651766594828

Question
[...] is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with Crohn disease
Answer
Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE)


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Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc defic

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Flashcard 1651768167692

Question
Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to [...] deficiency. AE has been associated with Crohn disease
Answer
zinc


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ml>Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with Crohn disease<html>

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Flashcard 1651769740556

Question
Acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with [...]
Answer
Crohn disease


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tis enteropathica (AE) is an inherited or acquired metabolic disorder characterized by perioral and acral (in the extremities) erythematous and vesiculobullous dermatitis and alopecia related to zinc deficiency. AE has been associated with <span>Crohn disease<span><body><html>

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Erythema nodosum is the most common cutaneous manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules presenting as barely appreciable convexities on the skin surface, with a reddish hue in the acute phase. EN is frequently bilateral and symmetrical, and it usually occurs on the distal lower extremities, but it may also appear on the trunk, thighs, or upper extremities

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Flashcard 1651772886284

Question
Erythema nodosum is the most common cutaneous manifestation of [...], occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules presenting as barely appreciable convexities on the skin surface, with a reddish hue in the acute phase. EN is frequently bilateral and symmetrical, and it usually occurs on the distal lower extremities, but it may also appear on the trunk, thighs, or upper extremities
Answer
inflammatory bowel disease


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Erythema nodosum is the most common cutaneous manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules presenting as barely appreciable convexities on the skin surface, with a r

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Flashcard 1651774459148

Question
[...] is the most common cutaneous manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules presenting as barely appreciable convexities on the skin surface, with a reddish hue in the acute phase. EN is frequently bilateral and symmetrical, and it usually occurs on the distal lower extremities, but it may also appear on the trunk, thighs, or upper extremities
Answer
Erythema nodosum


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Erythema nodosum is the most common cutaneous manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease, occurring in up to 20% of patients, particularly women. The lesions of EN are tender, subcutaneous nodules p

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Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic fistulas.

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Flashcard 1651777604876

Question
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a [...]. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic fistulas.
Answer
scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule


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Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic fistulas.

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Flashcard 1651779177740

Question
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic [...].
Answer
fistulas


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Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) usually appears as a scaly, crusted, well- demarcated red papule, plaque, or nodule. SCC can develop in patients with Crohn disease, most commonly at sites of chronic, long-standing inflammation such as chronic <span>fistulas. <span><body><html>

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Giardiasis should be considered in patients with chronic diarrhea and exposure to young children or potentially contaminated water such as lakes and streams.

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Flashcard 1651782323468

Question
Giardiasis should be considered in patients with chronic diarrhea and exposure to [...] or potentially contaminated water such as lakes and streams.
Answer
young children


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Giardiasis should be considered in patients with chronic diarrhea and exposure to young children or potentially contaminated water such as lakes and streams.

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symptoms of giardiasis typically occur 1 to 2 weeks after infection and include watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever is distinctly unusual

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Flashcard 1651786255628

Question
symptoms of giardiasis typically occur [...] weeks after infection and include watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever is distinctly unusual
Answer
1 to 2


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symptoms of giardiasis typically occur 1 to 2 weeks after infection and include watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever

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Flashcard 1651788090636

Question
symptoms of giardiasis typically occur 1 to 2 weeks after infection and include [...]. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever is distinctly unusual
Answer
watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching


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symptoms of giardiasis typically occur 1 to 2 weeks after infection and include watery, foul-smelling diarrhea; bloating; flatulence; and belching. Significant weight loss is common because of anorexia and malabsorption, but fever is distinctly unusual

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Glucocorticoids are the cornerstone of treatment for autoimmune pancreatitis.

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Flashcard 1651791236364

Question
[...] are the cornerstone of treatment for autoimmune pancreatitis.
Answer
Glucocorticoids


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Glucocorticoids are the cornerstone of treatment for autoimmune pancreatitis.

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Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common

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Flashcard 1651794382092

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the [...] decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common
Answer
fifth


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Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a

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Flashcard 1651795954956

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features ([...]), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common
Answer
focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct


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pan> Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (<span>focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in

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Flashcard 1651797789964

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum [...] level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common
Answer
IgG4


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the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum <span>IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorti

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Flashcard 1651799362828

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement ([...]). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common
Answer
sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis


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of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (<span>sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to glucocorticoids, but relapse is common<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651800935692

Question
Type I autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) typically presents in older men, with a mean age of onset in the fifth decade of life. This patient has evidence of type 1 AIP based on the presence of three diagnostic criteria: imaging features (focal pancreatic enlargement with a featureless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to [...], but relapse is common
Answer
glucocorticoids


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reless rim and a nondilated pancreatic duct), increased serum IgG4 level, and extrapancreatic organ involvement (sclerosing cholangitis or IgG4-associated cholangitis). Almost all patients (>90%) enter clinical remission in response to <span>glucocorticoids, but relapse is common<span><body><html>

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A biliary metal stent is generally reserved for long-term palliation of malignant biliary strictures and is not required for IgG4-associated cholangitis.

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Flashcard 1651804081420

Question
A biliary metal stent is generally reserved for long-term [...] of malignant biliary strictures and is not required for IgG4-associated cholangitis.
Answer
palliation


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A biliary metal stent is generally reserved for long-term palliation of malignant biliary strictures and is not required for IgG4-associated cholangitis.

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Treat small-bowel bleeding with push enteroscopy.

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Flashcard 1651807227148

Question
Treat small-bowel bleeding with [...].
Answer
push enteroscopy


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Treat small-bowel bleeding with push enteroscopy.

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Enteroscopy should be performed after a negative upper endoscopy and colonoscopy or after a positive capsule endoscopy.

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Flashcard 1651810372876

Question
Enteroscopy should be performed after a [...] or after a positive capsule endoscopy.
Answer
negative upper endoscopy and colonoscopy


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Enteroscopy should be performed after a negative upper endoscopy and colonoscopy or after a positive capsule endoscopy.

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Intraoperative endoscopy is reserved for patients with active bleeding from the small bowel in whom both endoscopy and angiography have failed to identify the small-bowel bleeding source

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Flashcard 1651814042892

Question
Intraoperative endoscopy is reserved for patients with active bleeding from the small bowel in whom both endoscopy and angiography have [...] to identify the small-bowel bleeding source
Answer
failed


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Intraoperative endoscopy is reserved for patients with active bleeding from the small bowel in whom both endoscopy and angiography have failed to identify the small-bowel bleeding source

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Linaclotide is FDA approved for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with constipation in adults; like lubiprostone, it is second-line therapy for patients whose symptoms have not responded to standard laxative therapy

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Flashcard 1651817188620

Question
[...] is FDA approved for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with constipation in adults; like lubiprostone, it is second-line therapy for patients whose symptoms have not responded to standard laxative therapy
Answer
Linaclotide


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Linaclotide is FDA approved for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with constipation in adults; like lubiprostone, it is second-line therapy for patients whose symptoms have not responded

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The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.

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Flashcard 1651824004364

Question
The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins [...] can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.
Answer
A, D, E, and K


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The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.

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Flashcard 1651825577228

Question
The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including [...] gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.
Answer
Roux-en-Y


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The absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K can be severely impaired following malabsorptive bariatric surgery, including Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch.

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Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid inflammation, and rough and/or dry skin

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Flashcard 1651828722956

Question
Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased [...] inflammation, and rough and/or dry skin
Answer
vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid


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Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid inflammation, and rough and/or dry skin

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Flashcard 1651830295820

Question
Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid inflammation, and [...] skin
Answer
rough and/or dry


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Symptoms associated with vitamin A deficiency include decreased vision at night or in dim light, dry eyes, corneal and/or eyelid inflammation, and rough and/or dry skin

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Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency

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Flashcard 1651833441548

Question
Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to [...] and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency
Answer
subacute combined degeneration


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Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency

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Flashcard 1651835014412

Question
Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with [...]. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency
Answer
macrocytic anemia and leukopenia


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Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency

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Flashcard 1651836587276

Question
Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin [...] deficiency
Answer
B12


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Copper deficiency causes a chronic syndrome similar to subacute combined degeneration and is also associated with macrocytic anemia and leukopenia. Therefore, this deficiency can be difficult to differentiate from vitamin B12 deficiency<html>

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In patients with Barrett esophagus and no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in 3 to 5 years.

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Flashcard 1651839995148

Question
In patients with Barrett esophagus and no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in [...] years.
Answer
3 to 5


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In patients with Barrett esophagus and no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in 3 to 5 years.

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endoscopic assessment for Barrett esophagus (BE) in patients with chronic reflux symptoms may be appropriate in specific patients. It is reasonable to consider screening men older than 50 years with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms for more than 5 years and additional risk factors (nocturnal reflux symptoms, hiatal hernia, elevated BMI, tobacco use, and intra-abdominal distribution of fat) to detect esophageal adenocarcinoma and BE.

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Flashcard 1651843140876

Question
endoscopic assessment for Barrett esophagus (BE) in patients with chronic reflux symptoms may be appropriate in specific patients. It is reasonable to consider screening men older than [...] years with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms for more than 5 years and additional risk factors (nocturnal reflux symptoms, hiatal hernia, elevated BMI, tobacco use, and intra-abdominal distribution of fat) to detect esophageal adenocarcinoma and BE.
Answer
50


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endoscopic assessment for Barrett esophagus (BE) in patients with chronic reflux symptoms may be appropriate in specific patients. It is reasonable to consider screening men older than 50 years with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms for more than 5 years and additional risk factors (nocturnal reflux symptoms, hiatal hernia, elevated BMI, tobacco use, and

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Flashcard 1651844713740

Question
endoscopic assessment for Barrett esophagus (BE) in patients with chronic reflux symptoms may be appropriate in specific patients. It is reasonable to consider screening men older than 50 years with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms for more than 5 years and additional risk factors ([...]) to detect esophageal adenocarcinoma and BE.
Answer
nocturnal reflux symptoms, hiatal hernia, elevated BMI, tobacco use, and intra-abdominal distribution of fat


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s with chronic reflux symptoms may be appropriate in specific patients. It is reasonable to consider screening men older than 50 years with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms for more than 5 years and additional risk factors (<span>nocturnal reflux symptoms, hiatal hernia, elevated BMI, tobacco use, and intra-abdominal distribution of fat) to detect esophageal adenocarcinoma and BE.<span><body><html>

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Recommended surveillance of patients with newly diagnosed BE is based on the presence and degree of dysplasia on biopsy. In those with no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in 3 to 5 years. In patients with low-grade dysplasia, surveillance is more frequent, usually 6 to 12 months following confirmation by an expert pathologist. High-grade dysplasia requires either more aggressive surveillance or treatment to remove BE (such as with endoscopic ablation or esophagectomy)

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Flashcard 1651847859468

Question
Recommended surveillance of patients with newly diagnosed BE is based on the presence and degree of dysplasia on biopsy. In those with no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in [...] years. In patients with low-grade dysplasia, surveillance is more frequent, usually 6 to 12 months following confirmation by an expert pathologist. High-grade dysplasia requires either more aggressive surveillance or treatment to remove BE (such as with endoscopic ablation or esophagectomy)
Answer
3 to 5


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Recommended surveillance of patients with newly diagnosed BE is based on the presence and degree of dysplasia on biopsy. In those with no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in 3 to 5 years. In patients with low-grade dysplasia, surveillance is more frequent, usually 6 to 12 months following confirmation by an expert pathologist. High-grade dysplasia requires eith

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Flashcard 1651849694476

Question
Recommended surveillance of patients with newly diagnosed BE is based on the presence and degree of dysplasia on biopsy. In those with no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in 3 to 5 years. In patients with low-grade dysplasia, surveillance is more frequent, usually [...] months following confirmation by an expert pathologist. High-grade dysplasia requires either more aggressive surveillance or treatment to remove BE (such as with endoscopic ablation or esophagectomy)
Answer
6 to 12


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osed BE is based on the presence and degree of dysplasia on biopsy. In those with no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in 3 to 5 years. In patients with low-grade dysplasia, surveillance is more frequent, usually <span>6 to 12 months following confirmation by an expert pathologist. High-grade dysplasia requires either more aggressive surveillance or treatment to remove BE (such as with endoscopic ablation

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Flashcard 1651851267340

Question
Recommended surveillance of patients with newly diagnosed BE is based on the presence and degree of dysplasia on biopsy. In those with no dysplasia, surveillance with upper endoscopy is recommended in 3 to 5 years. In patients with low-grade dysplasia, surveillance is more frequent, usually 6 to 12 months following confirmation by an expert pathologist. High-grade dysplasia requires either more aggressive surveillance or treatment to remove BE (such as with [...])
Answer
endoscopic ablation or esophagectomy


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ents with low-grade dysplasia, surveillance is more frequent, usually 6 to 12 months following confirmation by an expert pathologist. High-grade dysplasia requires either more aggressive surveillance or treatment to remove BE (such as with <span>endoscopic ablation or esophagectomy)<span><body><html>

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Fundoplication is the appropriate treatment for GERD in patients who wish to stop taking medication or in those with a poor response to medical therapy.

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Flashcard 1651854413068

Question
Fundoplication is the appropriate treatment for GERD in patients who wish to stop taking medication or in those with a [...] response to medical therapy.
Answer
poor


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Fundoplication is the appropriate treatment for GERD in patients who wish to stop taking medication or in those with a poor response to medical therapy.

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The diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis is generally made on the basis of a cholestatic liver enzyme profile in the setting of a positive antimitochondrial antibody test.

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Flashcard 1651857558796

Question
The diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis is generally made on the basis of a cholestatic liver enzyme profile in the setting of a [...] antibody test.
Answer
positive antimitochondrial


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The diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis is generally made on the basis of a cholestatic liver enzyme profile in the setting of a positive antimitochondrial antibody test.

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symptoms of primary biliary cirrhosis PBC include fatigue, dry eyes, dry mouth, and pruritus. Hyperlipidemia is common, but jaundice, cutaneous hyperpigmentation, hepatosplenomegaly, and xanthelasmas are rarely observed at diagnosis.

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Flashcard 1651861490956

Question
symptoms of primary biliary cirrhosis PBC include [...] Hyperlipidemia is common, but jaundice, cutaneous hyperpigmentation, hepatosplenomegaly, and xanthelasmas are rarely observed at diagnosis.
Answer
fatigue, dry eyes, dry mouth, and pruritus.


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symptoms of primary biliary cirrhosis PBC include fatigue, dry eyes, dry mouth, and pruritus. Hyperlipidemia is common, but jaundice, cutaneous hyperpigmentation, hepatosplenomegaly, and xanthelasmas are rarely observed at diagnosis.

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Flashcard 1651863063820

Question
symptoms of primary biliary cirrhosis PBC include fatigue, dry eyes, dry mouth, and pruritus. Hyperlipidemia is common, but jaundice, cutaneous hyperpigmentation, hepatosplenomegaly, and xanthelasmas are [...] observed at diagnosis.
Answer
rarely


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symptoms of primary biliary cirrhosis PBC include fatigue, dry eyes, dry mouth, and pruritus. Hyperlipidemia is common, but jaundice, cutaneous hyperpigmentation, hepatosplenomegaly, and xanthelasmas are rarely observed at diagnosis.

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PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial antibody is present in 90% to 95% of patients. For patients with undetectable serum antimitochondrial antibody levels, a liver biopsy is required for diagnosis.

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Flashcard 1651866209548

Question
PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than [...] times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial antibody is present in 90% to 95% of patients. For patients with undetectable serum antimitochondrial antibody levels, a liver biopsy is required for diagnosis.
Answer
1.5


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PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times

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Flashcard 1651867782412

Question
PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically [...] serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial antibody is present in 90% to 95% of patients. For patients with undetectable serum antimitochondrial antibody levels, a liver biopsy is required for diagnosis.
Answer
normal


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PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial an

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Flashcard 1651869355276

Question
PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically [...] times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial antibody is present in 90% to 95% of patients. For patients with undetectable serum antimitochondrial antibody levels, a liver biopsy is required for diagnosis.
Answer
less than five


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>PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial antibody is present in 90% to 95% of patients. For patients with undetectable serum antimitochondrial antibody levels, a liver

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Flashcard 1651870928140

Question
PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial antibody is present in [...]% of patients. For patients with undetectable serum antimitochondrial antibody levels, a liver biopsy is required for diagnosis.
Answer
90% to 95


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imit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial antibody is present in <span>90% to 95% of patients. For patients with undetectable serum antimitochondrial antibody levels, a liver biopsy is required for diagnosis.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651872501004

Question
PBC is diagnosed by serum alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and typically normal serum total bilirubin levels. Serum aspartate (AST) and alanine (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial antibody is present in 90% to 95% of patients. For patients with undetectable serum antimitochondrial antibody levels, a [...] is required for diagnosis.
Answer
liver biopsy


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ne (ALT) aminotransferase levels are typically less than five times the upper limit of normal. Serum antimitochondrial antibody is present in 90% to 95% of patients. For patients with undetectable serum antimitochondrial antibody levels, a <span>liver biopsy is required for diagnosis.<span><body><html>

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Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic inflammatory liver disease that is usually seen in women. The disease presentation ranges from asymptomatic to acute liver failure. Autoimmune hepatitis typically causes a predominant elevation of the serum ALT level rather than the serum alkaline phosphatase level,

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Flashcard 1651875646732

Question
Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic inflammatory liver disease that is usually seen in women. The disease presentation ranges from asymptomatic to acute liver failure. Autoimmune hepatitis typically causes a predominant elevation of the serum [...] level rather than the serum alkaline phosphatase level,
Answer
ALT


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utoimmune hepatitis is a chronic inflammatory liver disease that is usually seen in women. The disease presentation ranges from asymptomatic to acute liver failure. Autoimmune hepatitis typically causes a predominant elevation of the serum <span>ALT level rather than the serum alkaline phosphatase level,<span><body><html>

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. A Cholangiocarcinoma is classified by location as intrahepatic and hilar/extrahepatic. Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is typically asymptomatic until the tumor is advanced, at which time right upper quadrant discomfort, weight loss, and fever may be the only symptoms. An elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level may be noted. Risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma are primary sclerosing cholangitis, biliary atresia, chronic infection with liver flukes, and biliary cysts.

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Flashcard 1651879578892

Question
. A Cholangiocarcinoma is classified by location as [...]. Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is typically asymptomatic until the tumor is advanced, at which time right upper quadrant discomfort, weight loss, and fever may be the only symptoms. An elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level may be noted. Risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma are primary sclerosing cholangitis, biliary atresia, chronic infection with liver flukes, and biliary cysts.
Answer
intrahepatic and hilar/extrahepatic


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. A Cholangiocarcinoma is classified by location as intrahepatic and hilar/extrahepatic. Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is typically asymptomatic until the tumor is advanced, at which time right upper quadrant discomfort, weight loss, and fever may be the only symptoms. A

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Flashcard 1651881151756

Question
. A Cholangiocarcinoma is classified by location as intrahepatic and hilar/extrahepatic. Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is typically asymptomatic until the tumor is advanced, at which time right upper quadrant discomfort, weight loss, and fever may be the only symptoms. An elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level may be noted. Risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma are [...]
Answer
primary sclerosing cholangitis, biliary atresia, chronic infection with liver flukes, and biliary cysts.


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cally asymptomatic until the tumor is advanced, at which time right upper quadrant discomfort, weight loss, and fever may be the only symptoms. An elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level may be noted. Risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma are <span>primary sclerosing cholangitis, biliary atresia, chronic infection with liver flukes, and biliary cysts.<span><body><html>

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Capsule endoscopy has become the first-line test in evaluating the small bowel in patients with obscure gastrointestinal bleeding after a negative upper endoscopy and colonoscopy.

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Flashcard 1651884559628

Question
[...] has become the first-line test in evaluating the small bowel in patients with obscure gastrointestinal bleeding after a negative upper endoscopy and colonoscopy.
Answer
Capsule endoscopy


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Capsule endoscopy has become the first-line test in evaluating the small bowel in patients with obscure gastrointestinal bleeding after a negative upper endoscopy and colonoscopy.<

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Angiography and technetium-labeled nuclear scans are used in patients with active bleeding (melena or hematochezia) who are transfusion dependent and hospitalized.

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Flashcard 1651887967500

Question
Angiography and technetium-labeled nuclear scans are used in patients with active bleeding (melena or hematochezia) who are [...]
Answer
transfusion dependent and hospitalized.


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Angiography and technetium-labeled nuclear scans are used in patients with active bleeding (melena or hematochezia) who are transfusion dependent and hospitalized.

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Enteral feeding has been shown to reduce infectious complications, multiple organ failure, operative interventions, and mortality compared with feeding by total parenteral nutrition in patients with severe acute pancreatitis.

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Flashcard 1651891113228

Question
[...] feeding has been shown to reduce infectious complications, multiple organ failure, operative interventions, and mortality compared with feeding by total parenteral nutrition in patients with severe acute pancreatitis.
Answer
Enteral


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Enteral feeding has been shown to reduce infectious complications, multiple organ failure, operative interventions, and mortality compared with feeding by total parenteral nutrition in patien

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this patient with sever acute pancreatitis also has several risk factors for severe disease based on the presence of three of four Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria (pulse rate >90/min, leukocyte count >12,000/µL [12 × 109/L], and respiration rate >20/min) and a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 23 mg/dL (8.2 mmol/L).

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Flashcard 1651895307532

Question
this patient with sever acute pancreatitis also has several risk factors for severe disease based on the presence of three of four Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria (pulse rate >[...]/min, leukocyte count >12,000/µL [12 × 109/L], and respiration rate >20/min) and a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 23 mg/dL (8.2 mmol/L).
Answer
90


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this patient with sever acute pancreatitis also has several risk factors for severe disease based on the presence of three of four Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria (pulse rate >90/min, leukocyte count >12,000/µL [12 × 109/L], and respiration rate >20/min) and a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 23 mg/dL (8.2 mmol/L).

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Flashcard 1651896880396

Question
this patient with sever acute pancreatitis also has several risk factors for severe disease based on the presence of three of four Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria (pulse rate >90/min, leukocyte count >[...] × 109/L], and respiration rate >20/min) and a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 23 mg/dL (8.2 mmol/L).
Answer
12,000/µL [12


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span>this patient with sever acute pancreatitis also has several risk factors for severe disease based on the presence of three of four Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria (pulse rate >90/min, leukocyte count >12,000/µL [12 × 109/L], and respiration rate >20/min) and a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 23 mg/dL (8.2 mmol/L).<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651898453260

Question
this patient with sever acute pancreatitis also has several risk factors for severe disease based on the presence of three of four Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria (pulse rate >90/min, leukocyte count >12,000/µL [12 × 109/L], and respiration rate >[...]/min) and a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 23 mg/dL (8.2 mmol/L).
Answer
20


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itis also has several risk factors for severe disease based on the presence of three of four Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria (pulse rate >90/min, leukocyte count >12,000/µL [12 × 109/L], and respiration rate ><span>20/min) and a blood urea nitrogen level greater than 23 mg/dL (8.2 mmol/L).<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1651900026124

Question
this patient with sever acute pancreatitis also has several risk factors for severe disease based on the presence of three of four Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria (pulse rate >90/min, leukocyte count >12,000/µL [12 × 109/L], and respiration rate >20/min) and a blood urea nitrogen level greater than [...] mmol/L).
Answer
23 mg/dL (8.2


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e based on the presence of three of four Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria (pulse rate >90/min, leukocyte count >12,000/µL [12 × 109/L], and respiration rate >20/min) and a blood urea nitrogen level greater than <span>23 mg/dL (8.2 mmol/L).<span><body><html>

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The optimal time to start enteral nutrition remains under investigation, but it should commence no later than 72 hours after presentation. In mild acute pancreatitis, oral feeding may start when nausea and vomiting resolve

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Flashcard 1651903433996

Question
The optimal time to start enteral nutrition remains under investigation, but it should commence no later than [...] hours after presentation. In mild acute pancreatitis, oral feeding may start when nausea and vomiting resolve
Answer
72


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The optimal time to start enteral nutrition remains under investigation, but it should commence no later than 72 hours after presentation. In mild acute pancreatitis, oral feeding may start when nausea and vomiting resolve

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five criteria for admitting anal fissure patient that predict severe bleeding: age 60 years or older, comorbid illnesses (particularly when two or more are present), hemodynamic instability, gross rectal bleeding (or early rebleeding), or exposure to antiplatelet drugs and anticoagulants

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Flashcard 1651907366156

Question
five criteria for admitting anal fissure patient that predict severe bleeding: age [...] years or older, comorbid illnesses (particularly when two or more are present), hemodynamic instability, gross rectal bleeding (or early rebleeding), or exposure to antiplatelet drugs and anticoagulants
Answer
60


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five criteria for admitting anal fissure patient that predict severe bleeding: age 60 years or older, comorbid illnesses (particularly when two or more are present), hemodynamic instability, gross rectal bleeding (or early rebleeding), or exposure to antiplatelet drugs a

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Flashcard 1651908939020

Question
five criteria for admitting anal fissure patient that predict severe bleeding: age 60 years or older, comorbid illnesses (particularly when two or more are present), hemodynamic instability, gross rectal bleeding (or early rebleeding), or exposure to [...]
Answer
antiplatelet drugs and anticoagulants


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eria for admitting anal fissure patient that predict severe bleeding: age 60 years or older, comorbid illnesses (particularly when two or more are present), hemodynamic instability, gross rectal bleeding (or early rebleeding), or exposure to <span>antiplatelet drugs and anticoagulants<span><body><html>

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Hepatocellular adenomas that are larger than 5 cm or that exhibit β- catenin nuclear reactivity should be treated with surgical resection.

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Flashcard 1651912084748

Question
Hepatocellular adenomas that are larger than [...] cm or that exhibit β- catenin nuclear reactivity should be treated with surgical resection.
Answer
5


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Hepatocellular adenomas that are larger than 5 cm or that exhibit β- catenin nuclear reactivity should be treated with surgical resection.

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Flashcard 1651913657612

Question
Hepatocellular adenomas that are larger than 5 cm or that exhibit [...] nuclear reactivity should be treated with surgical resection.
Answer
β- catenin


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Hepatocellular adenomas that are larger than 5 cm or that exhibit β- catenin nuclear reactivity should be treated with surgical resection.

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Flashcard 1651915230476

Question
Hepatocellular adenomas that are larger than 5 cm or that exhibit β- catenin nuclear reactivity should be treated with [...].
Answer
surgical resection


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Hepatocellular adenomas that are larger than 5 cm or that exhibit β- catenin nuclear reactivity should be treated with surgical resection.

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Hepatic adenomas with positive genotyping for β-catenin activation or that are positive for the correlating immunohistochemistry study for glutamine synthetase have a higher risk of transformation to liver cancer

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Flashcard 1651918376204

Question
Hepatic adenomas with positive genotyping for β-catenin activation or that are positive for the correlating immunohistochemistry study for glutamine synthetase have a higher risk of transformation to [...]
Answer
liver cancer


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Hepatic adenomas with positive genotyping for β-catenin activation or that are positive for the correlating immunohistochemistry study for glutamine synthetase have a higher risk of transformation to liver cancer

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Candida albicans is the most common cause of infectious esophagitis in immunocompromised patients and is often associated with oropharyngeal candidiasis. The most appropriate treatment is fluconazole.

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Flashcard 1651921521932

Question
Candida albicans is the most common cause of infectious esophagitis in immunocompromised patients and is often associated with oropharyngeal candidiasis. The most appropriate treatment is [...].
Answer
fluconazole


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Candida albicans is the most common cause of infectious esophagitis in immunocompromised patients and is often associated with oropharyngeal candidiasis. The most appropriate treatment is fluconazole.

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C. albicans is the most common cause of infectious esophagitis in immunocompromised patients and is often associated with oropharyngeal candidiasis. It often presents with dysphagia, odynophagia, and curdy white esophageal plaques seen on upper endoscopy, which is confirmed with esophageal brushings.

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Flashcard 1651924667660

Question
C. albicans is the most common cause of infectious esophagitis in immunocompromised patients and is often associated with oropharyngeal candidiasis. It often presents with dysphagia, odynophagia, and [...] plaques seen on upper endoscopy, which is confirmed with esophageal brushings.
Answer
curdy white esophageal


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C. albicans is the most common cause of infectious esophagitis in immunocompromised patients and is often associated with oropharyngeal candidiasis. It often presents with dysphagia, odynophagia, and curdy white esophageal plaques seen on upper endoscopy, which is confirmed with esophageal brushings.

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Flashcard 1651926240524

Question
C. albicans is the most common cause of infectious esophagitis in immunocompromised patients and is often associated with oropharyngeal candidiasis. It often presents with dysphagia, odynophagia, and curdy white esophageal plaques seen on upper endoscopy, which is confirmed with esophageal [...]
Answer
brushings.


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sophagitis in immunocompromised patients and is often associated with oropharyngeal candidiasis. It often presents with dysphagia, odynophagia, and curdy white esophageal plaques seen on upper endoscopy, which is confirmed with esophageal <span>brushings.<span><body><html>

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The differential diagnosis of esophagitis in immunocompromised also includes possible viral causes. Cytomegalovirus often presents with a single ulcer in the esophagus. The diagnosis is established with biopsies from the ulcer base, and treatment should be with ganciclovir. Herpes simplex virus is also characterized by ulcers, typically multiple, found on upper endoscopy. The diagnosis is established with biopsy of the ulcer edge, and treatment should be with acyclovir.

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Flashcard 1651930172684

Question
The differential diagnosis of esophagitis in immunocompromised also includes possible viral causes. [...] often presents with a single ulcer in the esophagus. The diagnosis is established with biopsies from the ulcer base, and treatment should be with ganciclovir. Herpes simplex virus is also characterized by ulcers, typically multiple, found on upper endoscopy. The diagnosis is established with biopsy of the ulcer edge, and treatment should be with acyclovir.
Answer
Cytomegalovirus


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The differential diagnosis of esophagitis in immunocompromised also includes possible viral causes. Cytomegalovirus often presents with a single ulcer in the esophagus. The diagnosis is established with biopsies from the ulcer base, and treatment should be with ganciclovir. Herpes simplex virus is al

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Flashcard 1651931745548

Question
The differential diagnosis of esophagitis in immunocompromised also includes possible viral causes. Cytomegalovirus often presents with a single ulcer in the esophagus. The diagnosis is established with biopsies from the ulcer base, and treatment should be with [...]. Herpes simplex virus is also characterized by ulcers, typically multiple, found on upper endoscopy. The diagnosis is established with biopsy of the ulcer edge, and treatment should be with acyclovir.
Answer
ganciclovir


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gnosis of esophagitis in immunocompromised also includes possible viral causes. Cytomegalovirus often presents with a single ulcer in the esophagus. The diagnosis is established with biopsies from the ulcer base, and treatment should be with <span>ganciclovir. Herpes simplex virus is also characterized by ulcers, typically multiple, found on upper endoscopy. The diagnosis is established with biopsy of the ulcer edge, and treatment should be

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Flashcard 1651933318412

Question
The differential diagnosis of esophagitis in immunocompromised also includes possible viral causes. Cytomegalovirus often presents with a single ulcer in the esophagus. The diagnosis is established with biopsies from the ulcer base, and treatment should be with ganciclovir. [...] virus is also characterized by ulcers, typically multiple, found on upper endoscopy. The diagnosis is established with biopsy of the ulcer edge, and treatment should be with acyclovir.
Answer
Herpes simplex


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phagitis in immunocompromised also includes possible viral causes. Cytomegalovirus often presents with a single ulcer in the esophagus. The diagnosis is established with biopsies from the ulcer base, and treatment should be with ganciclovir. <span>Herpes simplex virus is also characterized by ulcers, typically multiple, found on upper endoscopy. The diagnosis is established with biopsy of the ulcer edge, and treatment should be with acyclovir.<

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Flashcard 1651934891276

Question
The differential diagnosis of esophagitis in immunocompromised also includes possible viral causes. Cytomegalovirus often presents with a single ulcer in the esophagus. The diagnosis is established with biopsies from the ulcer base, and treatment should be with ganciclovir. Herpes simplex virus is also characterized by ulcers, typically multiple, found on upper endoscopy. The diagnosis is established with biopsy of the ulcer edge, and treatment should be with [...].
Answer
acyclovir


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ulcer base, and treatment should be with ganciclovir. Herpes simplex virus is also characterized by ulcers, typically multiple, found on upper endoscopy. The diagnosis is established with biopsy of the ulcer edge, and treatment should be with <span>acyclovir.<span><body><html>

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Biofeedback therapy is superior to all forms of laxative therapy for dyssynergic defecation because it corrects the underlying pathologic mechanisms.

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Flashcard 1651938037004

Question
[...] therapy is superior to all forms of laxative therapy for dyssynergic defecation because it corrects the underlying pathologic mechanisms.
Answer
Biofeedback


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Biofeedback therapy is superior to all forms of laxative therapy for dyssynergic defecation because it corrects the underlying pathologic mechanisms.

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Sporadic fundic gland polyps have been associated with proton pump inhibitor use and do not require excision or surveillance.

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Flashcard 1651941444876

Question
Sporadic fundic gland polyps have been associated with [...] use and do not require excision or surveillance.
Answer
proton pump inhibitor


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Sporadic fundic gland polyps have been associated with proton pump inhibitor use and do not require excision or surveillance.

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Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant hereditary colon cancer syndrome caused by anAPC gene mutation. It is associated with the near-universal presence of gastric fundic gland polyposis, duodenal adenomas, and a personal or family history of early-onset colonic adenomas or colorectal cancer.

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Flashcard 1651944590604

Question
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal [...] hereditary colon cancer syndrome caused by anAPC gene mutation. It is associated with the near-universal presence of gastric fundic gland polyposis, duodenal adenomas, and a personal or family history of early-onset colonic adenomas or colorectal cancer.
Answer
dominant


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Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant hereditary colon cancer syndrome caused by anAPC gene mutation. It is associated with the near-universal presence of gastric fundic gland polyposis, duodenal adenomas, and a personal

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Flashcard 1651946163468

Question
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant hereditary colon cancer syndrome caused by an[...] gene mutation. It is associated with the near-universal presence of gastric fundic gland polyposis, duodenal adenomas, and a personal or family history of early-onset colonic adenomas or colorectal cancer.
Answer
APC


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Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant hereditary colon cancer syndrome caused by anAPC gene mutation. It is associated with the near-universal presence of gastric fundic gland polyposis, duodenal adenomas, and a personal or family history of early-onset colonic adenomas

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A series of randomized clinical trials showed that the most effective treatment strategy in the prevention of recurrent ulcer bleeding was the use of celecoxib plus twice-daily proton pump inhibitor therapy

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Flashcard 1651949571340

Question
A series of randomized clinical trials showed that the most effective treatment strategy in the prevention of recurrent ulcer bleeding was the use of [...]
Answer
celecoxib plus twice-daily proton pump inhibitor therapy


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A series of randomized clinical trials showed that the most effective treatment strategy in the prevention of recurrent ulcer bleeding was the use of celecoxib plus twice-daily proton pump inhibitor therapy

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In Crohn disease, endoscopic findings vary from superficial aphthous ulcers to discrete, deep ulcers that can be linear, stellate, or serpiginous and that may coalesce into a “cobblestone” appearance. Rectal sparing is typical, as are areas of inflammation separated by normal mucosa (known as skip lesions).

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Flashcard 1651952717068

Question
In Crohn disease, endoscopic findings vary from superficial aphthous ulcers to discrete, deep ulcers that can be linear, stellate, or serpiginous and that may coalesce into a “[...]” appearance. Rectal sparing is typical, as are areas of inflammation separated by normal mucosa (known as skip lesions).
Answer
cobblestone


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In Crohn disease, endoscopic findings vary from superficial aphthous ulcers to discrete, deep ulcers that can be linear, stellate, or serpiginous and that may coalesce into a “cobblestone” appearance. Rectal sparing is typical, as are areas of inflammation separated by normal mucosa (known as skip lesions).

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Flashcard 1651954289932

Question
In Crohn disease, endoscopic findings vary from superficial aphthous ulcers to discrete, deep ulcers that can be linear, stellate, or serpiginous and that may coalesce into a “cobblestone” appearance. Rectal [...] is typical, as are areas of inflammation separated by normal mucosa (known as skip lesions).
Answer
sparing


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In Crohn disease, endoscopic findings vary from superficial aphthous ulcers to discrete, deep ulcers that can be linear, stellate, or serpiginous and that may coalesce into a “cobblestone” appearance. Rectal sparing is typical, as are areas of inflammation separated by normal mucosa (known as skip lesions).<html>

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Flashcard 1651955862796

Question
In Crohn disease, endoscopic findings vary from superficial aphthous ulcers to discrete, deep ulcers that can be linear, stellate, or serpiginous and that may coalesce into a “cobblestone” appearance. Rectal sparing is typical, as are areas of inflammation separated by normal mucosa (known as [...]).
Answer
skip lesions


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icial aphthous ulcers to discrete, deep ulcers that can be linear, stellate, or serpiginous and that may coalesce into a “cobblestone” appearance. Rectal sparing is typical, as are areas of inflammation separated by normal mucosa (known as <span>skip lesions).<span><body><html>

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The typical presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia consists of abdominal pain within an hour of meals, fear of food ingestion, and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is chronic mesenteric ischemia and the next diagnostic test should be CT angiography

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Flashcard 1651959794956

Question
The typical presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia consists of abdominal pain within [...] of meals, fear of food ingestion, and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is chronic mesenteric ischemia and the next diagnostic test should be CT angiography
Answer
an hour


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The typical presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia consists of abdominal pain within an hour of meals, fear of food ingestion, and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is chronic mesenteric ischemia and the next diagnostic test should be CT angiography

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Flashcard 1651961367820

Question
The typical presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia consists of abdominal pain within an hour of meals, fear of [...], and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is chronic mesenteric ischemia and the next diagnostic test should be CT angiography
Answer
food ingestion


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The typical presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia consists of abdominal pain within an hour of meals, fear of food ingestion, and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is chronic mesenteric ischemia and the next diagnostic test should be CT angiography

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Flashcard 1651962940684

Question
The typical presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia consists of abdominal pain within an hour of meals, fear of food ingestion, and [...]. The most likely diagnosis is chronic mesenteric ischemia and the next diagnostic test should be CT angiography
Answer
weight loss


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The typical presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia consists of abdominal pain within an hour of meals, fear of food ingestion, and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is chronic mesenteric ischemia and the next diagnostic test should be CT angiography

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Flashcard 1651964513548

Question
The typical presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia consists of abdominal pain within an hour of meals, fear of food ingestion, and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is chronic mesenteric ischemia and the next diagnostic test should be [...]
Answer
CT angiography


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pical presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia consists of abdominal pain within an hour of meals, fear of food ingestion, and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is chronic mesenteric ischemia and the next diagnostic test should be <span>CT angiography<span><body><html>

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Patients in the inactive carrier phase of hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, characterized by a normal serum alanine aminotransferase level and a low HBV DNA level, do not require treatment.

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Flashcard 1651967659276

Question
Patients in the inactive carrier phase of hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, characterized by a normal serum alanine aminotransferase level and a low HBV DNA level, [...] require treatment.
Answer
do not


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Patients in the inactive carrier phase of hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, characterized by a normal serum alanine aminotransferase level and a low HBV DNA level, do not require treatment.

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Patients with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) should undergo screening for celiac disease with serum tissue transglutaminase testing, as celiac disease has greater prevalence in patients with IBS-D than in the general population

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Flashcard 1652086410508

Question
Patients with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) should undergo screening for [...] disease with serum tissue transglutaminase testing, as celiac disease has greater prevalence in patients with IBS-D than in the general population
Answer
celiac


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Patients with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) should undergo screening for celiac disease with serum tissue transglutaminase testing, as celiac disease has greater prevalence in patients with IBS-D than in the general population

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Flashcard 1652087983372

Question
Patients with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) should undergo screening for celiac disease with serum [...] testing, as celiac disease has greater prevalence in patients with IBS-D than in the general population
Answer
tissue transglutaminase


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Patients with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) should undergo screening for celiac disease with serum tissue transglutaminase testing, as celiac disease has greater prevalence in patients with IBS-D than in the general population

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Lactose hydrogen breath testing would be a consideration only if there was a reported connection between the ingestion of milk and bowel symptoms.

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Flashcard 1652091129100

Question
[...] testing would be a consideration only if there was a reported connection between the ingestion of milk and bowel symptoms.
Answer
Lactose hydrogen breath


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Lactose hydrogen breath testing would be a consideration only if there was a reported connection between the ingestion of milk and bowel symptoms.

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Cameron ulcerations are linear gastric erosions found within a hiatal hernia. These erosions have been associated with both iron deficiency anemia and acute and chronic blood loss. Repeating the upper endoscopy will allow re-evaluation of the hiatal hernia and the possible diagnosis of Cameron erosions.

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Flashcard 1652094274828

Question
Cameron ulcerations are [...] found within a hiatal hernia. These erosions have been associated with both iron deficiency anemia and acute and chronic blood loss. Repeating the upper endoscopy will allow re-evaluation of the hiatal hernia and the possible diagnosis of Cameron erosions.
Answer
linear gastric erosions


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Cameron ulcerations are linear gastric erosions found within a hiatal hernia. These erosions have been associated with both iron deficiency anemia and acute and chronic blood loss. Repeating the upper endoscopy will allow re-evalu

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Flashcard 1652095847692

Question
Cameron ulcerations are linear gastric erosions found within a [...]. These erosions have been associated with both iron deficiency anemia and acute and chronic blood loss. Repeating the upper endoscopy will allow re-evaluation of the hiatal hernia and the possible diagnosis of Cameron erosions.
Answer
hiatal hernia


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Cameron ulcerations are linear gastric erosions found within a hiatal hernia. These erosions have been associated with both iron deficiency anemia and acute and chronic blood loss. Repeating the upper endoscopy will allow re-evaluation of the hiatal hernia and

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Ambulatory pH testing is used to identify patients with GERD. Esophageal manometry testing will identify an underlying motility disorder of the esophagus.

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Flashcard 1652098993420

Question
[...] testing is used to identify patients with GERD. Esophageal manometry testing will identify an underlying motility disorder of the esophagus.
Answer
Ambulatory pH


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Ambulatory pH testing is used to identify patients with GERD. Esophageal manometry testing will identify an underlying motility disorder of the esophagus.

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Flashcard 1652100566284

Question
Ambulatory pH testing is used to identify patients with GERD. [...] testing will identify an underlying motility disorder of the esophagus.
Answer
Esophageal manometry


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Ambulatory pH testing is used to identify patients with GERD. Esophageal manometry testing will identify an underlying motility disorder of the esophagus.

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Effective antiviral treatment of hepatitis C virus infection can prevent or delay the development of cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma.

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Flashcard 1652103974156

Question
Effective antiviral treatment of hepatitis C virus infection can prevent or delay the development of [...].
Answer
cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma


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Effective antiviral treatment of hepatitis C virus infection can prevent or delay the development of cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma.

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HCV RNA by polymerase chain reaction confirms HCV infection.

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Flashcard 1652107119884

Question
[...] by polymerase chain reaction confirms HCV infection.
Answer
HCV RNA


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HCV RNA by polymerase chain reaction confirms HCV infection.

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HCV genotyping should be performed at the time of diagnosis to help choose a treatment regimen. This patient has HCV genotype 2 with significant fibrosis on liver biopsy.

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Flashcard 1652110265612

Question
HCV [...] should be performed at the time of diagnosis to help choose a treatment regimen. This patient has HCV genotype 2 with significant fibrosis on liver biopsy.
Answer
genotyping


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HCV genotyping should be performed at the time of diagnosis to help choose a treatment regimen. This patient has HCV genotype 2 with significant fibrosis on liver biopsy.

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Patients with HCV genotype 2 have a very high likelihood of sustained virologic response with sofosbuvir and ribavirin, and therefore treatment should be initiated with these agents.

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Flashcard 1652113411340

Question
Patients with HCV genotype 2 have a very high likelihood of sustained virologic response with [...], and therefore treatment should be initiated with these agents.
Answer
sofosbuvir and ribavirin


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Patients with HCV genotype 2 have a very high likelihood of sustained virologic response with sofosbuvir and ribavirin, and therefore treatment should be initiated with these agents.

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This patient's positive IgG antibody to hepatitis A virus test is a marker of previous infection; therefore, hepatitis A vaccination will not be useful or necessary

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Flashcard 1652116557068

Question
This patient's positive IgG antibody to hepatitis A virus test is a marker of [...]; therefore, hepatitis A vaccination will not be useful or necessary
Answer
previous infection


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This patient's positive IgG antibody to hepatitis A virus test is a marker of previous infection; therefore, hepatitis A vaccination will not be useful or necessary

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Testing for IgM antibody to hepatitis A virus is helpful in the diagnosis of acute hepatitis A

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Flashcard 1652119702796

Question
Testing for IgM antibody to hepatitis A virus is helpful in the [...]
Answer
diagnosis of acute hepatitis A


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Testing for IgM antibody to hepatitis A virus is helpful in the diagnosis of acute hepatitis A

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Flashcard 1652123897100

Tags
#reading-9-probability-concepts
Question
A [...] is a listing in which the order of listing does not matter.
Answer
combination


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Subject 10. Principles of Counting
nlike the multiplication rule, factorial involves only a single group. It involves arranging items within a group, and the order of the arrangement does matter. The arrangement of ABCDE is different from the arrangement of ACBDE. <span>A combination is a listing in which the order of listing does not matter. This describes the number of ways that we can choose r objects from a total of n objects, where the order in which the r objects is listed does not matter (The combination formula, or t







#has-images #reading-9-probability-concepts

A combination is a listing in which the order of listing does not matter. This describes the number of ways that we can choose r objects from a total of n objects, where the order in which the r objects is listed does not matter (The combination formula, or the binomial formula):

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Subject 10. Principles of Counting
nlike the multiplication rule, factorial involves only a single group. It involves arranging items within a group, and the order of the arrangement does matter. The arrangement of ABCDE is different from the arrangement of ACBDE. <span>A combination is a listing in which the order of listing does not matter. This describes the number of ways that we can choose r objects from a total of n objects, where the order in which the r objects is listed does not matter (The combination formula, or the binomial formula): For example, if you select two of the ten stocks you are analyzing, how many ways can you select the stocks? 10! / [(10 - 2)! x 2!] = 45. &




#reading-9-probability-concepts
Regarding counting, there can never be more combinations than permutations for the same problem, because permutations take into account all possible orderings of items, whereas combinations do not.

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Subject 10. Principles of Counting
he ten stocks you are analyzing and invest $10,000 in one stock and $20,000 in another stock, how many ways can you select the stocks? Note that the order of your selection is important in this case. 10 P 2 = 10!/(10 - 2)! = 90 <span>Note that there can never be more combinations than permutations for the same problem, because permutations take into account all possible orderings of items, whereas combinations do not. <span><body><html>




Flashcard 1652129402124

Tags
#reading-9-probability-concepts
Question
A listing in which the order DOES matter is known as a [...]
Answer
permutation


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Subject 10. Principles of Counting
(The combination formula, or the binomial formula): For example, if you select two of the ten stocks you are analyzing, how many ways can you select the stocks? 10! / [(10 - 2)! x 2!] = 45. <span>An ordered listing is known as a permutation, and the formula that counts the number of permutations is known as the permutation formula. The number of ways that we can choose r objects from a total of n objects, where the order i