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Flashcard 1438338125068

Tags
#analyst-notes #cfa-level-1 #corporate-finance #reading-35-capital-budgeting #study-session-10
Question

How should be negative externalities cash flows treated in the capital budget?

Answer
They should be subtracted since they are not incremental


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#13; Future cash flows represented by negative externalities occur regardless of the project, so they are non-incremental. Such cash flows represent a transfer from existing projects to new projects, and thus should be <span>subtracted from the new projects' cash flows.<span><body><html>

Original toplevel document

Subject 2. Basic Principles of Capital Budgeting
d in the estimated cash flows since the effects of debt financing are reflected in the cost of capital used to discount the cash flows. The existence of a project depends on business factors, not financing. <span>Important capital budgeting concepts: A sunk cost is a cash outlay that has already been incurred and which cannot be recovered regardless of whether a project is accepted or rejected. Since sunk costs are not increment costs, they should not be included in the capital budgeting analysis. For example, a small bookstore is considering opening a coffee shop within its store, which will generate an annual net cash outflow of $10,000 from selling coffee. That is, the coffee shop will always be losing money. In the previous year, the bookstore spent $5,000 to hire a consultant to perform an analysis. This $5,000 consulting fee is a sunk cost; whether the coffee shop is opened or not, the $5,000 is spent. Incremental cash flow is the net cash flow attributable to an investment project. It represents the change in the firm's total cash flow that occurs as a direct result of accepting the project. Forget sunk costs. Subtract opportunity costs. Consider side effects on other parts of the firm: externalities and cannibalization. Recognize the investment and recovery of net working capital. Opportunity cost is the return on the best alternative use of an asset or the highest return that will not be earned if funds are invested in a particular project. For example, to continue with the bookstore example, the space to be occupied by the coffee shop is an opportunity cost - it could be used to sell books and generate a $5,000 annual net cash inflow. Externalities are the effects of a project on cash flows in other parts of a firm. Although they are difficult to quantify, they should be considered. Externalities can be either positive or negative: Positive externalities create benefits for other parts of the firm. For example, the coffee shop may generate some additional customers for the bookstore (who otherwise may not buy books there). Future cash flows generated by positive externalities occur with the project and do not occur without the project, so they are incremental. Negative externalities create costs for other parts of the firm. For example, if the bookstore is considering opening a branch two blocks away, some customers who buy books at the old store will switch to the new branch. The customers lost by the old store are a negative externality. The primary type of negative externality is cannibalization, which occurs when the introduction of a new product causes sales of existing products to decline. Future cash flows represented by negative externalities occur regardless of the project, so they are non-incremental. Such cash flows represent a transfer from existing projects to new projects, and thus should be subtracted from the new projects' cash flows. Conventional versus non-conventional cash flows. A conventional cash flow pattern is one with an initial outflow followed by a series of inflows. In a non-conventional cash flow pattern, the initial outflow can be followed by inflows and/or outflows. Some project interactions: Indepe







Flashcard 1439321427212

Tags
#analyst-notes #cfa-level-1 #corporate-finance #reading-35-capital-budgeting #study-session-10 #subject-3-investment-criteria
Question
Choose one of the following to best quantify, in dollar terms, how stockholder wealth will be affected by undertaking a project under consideration.

A. The average accounting return
B. Net present value
C. Payback analysis
D. The profitability index
E. The internal rate of return
Answer
Correct Answer: B


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dy>NPV measures the dollar benefit of the project to shareholders. However, it does not measure the rate of return of the project, and thus cannot provide "safety margin" information. Safety margin refers to how much the project return could fall in percentage terms before the invested capital is at risk.<body><html>

Original toplevel document

Subject 3. Investment Decision Criteria
on that capital. If a firm takes on a project with a positive NPV, the position of the stockholders is improved. Decision rules: The higher the NPV, the better. Reject if NPV is less than or equal to 0. <span>NPV measures the dollar benefit of the project to shareholders. However, it does not measure the rate of return of the project, and thus cannot provide "safety margin" information. Safety margin refers to how much the project return could fall in percentage terms before the invested capital is at risk. Assuming the cost of capital for the firm is 10%, calculate each cash flow by dividing the cash flow by (1 + k) t where k is the cost of capital and t is the year number.







Flashcard 1442507001100

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #factors-that-determine-market-structures #microeconomics #reading-16-the-firm-and-market-structures #section-2-analysis-of-mkt-structures #study-session-4
Question
Non-price competition dominates those market structures where [...].
Answer
product differentiation is critical


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Non-price competition dominates those market structures where product differentiation is critical. Therefore, monopolistic competition relies on competitive strategies that may not include pricing changes.

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2. ANALYSIS OF MARKET STRUCTURES
d monopoly is the local electrical power provider. In most cases, the monopoly power provider is allowed to earn a normal return on its investment and prices are set by the regulatory authority to allow that return. <span>2.2. Factors That Determine Market Structure Five factors determine market structure: The number and relative size of firms supplying the product; The degree of product differentiation; The power of the seller over pricing decisions; The relative strength of the barriers to market entry and exit; and The degree of non-price competition. The number and relative size of firms in a market influence market structure. If there are many firms, the degree of competition increases. With fewer firms supplying a good or service, consumers are limited in their market choices. One extreme case is the monopoly market structure, with only one firm supplying a unique good or service. Another extreme is perfect competition, with many firms supplying a similar product. Finally, an example of relative size is the automobile industry, in which a small number of large international producers (e.g., Ford and Toyota) are the leaders in the global market, and a number of small companies either have market power because they are niche players (e.g., Ferrari) or have little market power because of their narrow range of models or limited geographical presence (e.g., Škoda). In the case of monopolistic competition, there are many firms providing products to the market, as with perfect competition. However, one firm’s product is differentiated in some way that makes it appear better than similar products from other firms. If a firm is successful in differentiating its product, the differentiation will provide pricing leverage. The more dissimilar the product appears, the more the market will resemble the monopoly market structure. A firm can differentiate its product through aggressive advertising campaigns; frequent styling changes; the linking of its product with other, complementary products; or a host of other methods. When the market dictates the price based on aggregate supply and demand conditions, the individual firm has no control over pricing. The typical hog farmer in Nebraska and the milk producer in Bavaria are price takers . That is, they must accept whatever price the market dictates. This is the case under the market structure of perfect competition. In the case of monopolistic competition, the success of product differentiation determines the degree with which the firm can influence price. In the case of oligopoly, there are so few firms in the market that price control becomes possible. However, the small number of firms in an oligopoly market invites complex pricing strategies. Collusion, price leadership by dominant firms, and other pricing strategies can result. The degree to which one market structure can evolve into another and the difference between potential short-run outcomes and long-run equilibrium conditions depend on the strength of the barriers to entry and the possibility that firms fail to recoup their original costs or lose money for an extended period of time and are therefore forced to exit the market. Barriers to entry can result from very large capital investment requirements, as in the case of petroleum refining. Barriers may also result from patents, as in the case of some electronic products and drug formulas. Another entry consideration is the possibility of high exit costs. For example, plants that are specific to a special line of products, such as aluminum smelting plants, are non-redeployable, and exit costs would be high without a liquid market for the firm’s assets. High exit costs deter entry and are therefore also considered barriers to entry. In the case of farming, the barriers to entry are low. Production of corn, soybeans, wheat, tomatoes, and other produce is an easy process to replicate; therefore, those are highly competitive markets. Non-price competition dominates those market structures where product differentiation is critical. Therefore, monopolistic competition relies on competitive strategies that may not include pricing changes. An example of non-price competition is product differentiation through marketing. In other circumstances, non-price competition may occur because the few firms in the market feel dependent on each other. Each firm fears retaliatory price changes that would reduce total revenue for all of the firms in the market. Because oligopoly industries have so few firms, each firm feels dependent on the pricing strategies of the others. Therefore, non-price competition becomes a dominant strategy. Exhibit 1. Characteristics of Market Structure Market Structure Number of Sellers Degree of Product Differentiation Barriers to Entry Pricing Power of Firm Non-price Competition Perfect competition Many Homogeneous/ Standardized Very Low None None Monopolistic competition Many Differentiated Low Some Advertising and Product Differentiation Oligopoly Few Homogeneous/ Standardized High Some or Considerable Advertising and Product Differentiation Monopoly One Unique Product Very High Considerable Advertising From the perspective of the owners of the firm, the most desirable market structure is that with the most control over price, because this control can lead to large profits. Monopoly and oligopoly markets offer the greatest potential control over price; monopolistic competition offers less control. Firms operating under perfectly competitive market conditions have no control over price. From the consumers’ perspective, the most desirable market structure is that with the greatest degree of competition, because prices are generally lower. Thus, consumers would prefer as many goods and services as possible to be offered in competitive markets. As often happens in economics, there is a trade-off. While perfect competition gives the largest quantity of a good at the lowest price, other market forms may spur more innovation. Specifically, there may be high costs in researching a new product, and firms will incur such costs only if they expect to earn an attractive return on their research investment. This is the case often made for medical innovations, for example—the cost of clinical trials and experiments to create new medicines would bankrupt perfectly competitive firms but may be acceptable in an oligopoly market structure. Therefore, consumers can benefit from less-than-perfectly-competitive markets. PORTER’S FIVE FORCES AND MARKET STRUCTURE A financial analyst aiming to establish market conditions and consequent profitability of incumbent firms should start with the questions framed by Exhibit 1: How many sellers are there? Is the product differentiated? and so on. Moreover, in the case of monopolies and quasi monopolies, the analyst should evaluate the legislative and regulatory framework: Can the company set prices freely, or are there governmental controls? Finally, the analyst should consider the threat of competition from potential entrants. This analysis is often summarized by students of corporate strategy as “Porter’s five forces,” named after Harvard Business School professor Michael E. Porter. His book, Competitive Strategy, presented a systematic analysis of the practice of market strategy. Porter (2008) identified the five forces as: Threat of entry; Power of suppliers; Power of buyers (customers); Threat of substitutes; and Rivalry among existing competitors. It is easy to note the parallels between four of these five forces and the columns in Exhibit 1. The only “orphan” is the power of suppliers, which is not at the core of the theoretical economic analysis of competition, but which has substantial weight in the practical analysis of competition and profitability. Some stock analysts (e.g., Dorsey 2004) use the term “economic moat” to suggest that there are factors protecting the profitability of a firm that are similar to the moats (ditches full of water) that used to protect some medieval castles. A deep moat means that there is little or no threat of entry by invaders, i.e. competitors. It also means that customers are locked in because of high switching costs. <span><body><html>







Flashcard 1479821102348

Tags
#cfa-level-1 #reading-25-understanding-income-statement #revenue-recognition
Question
In the % of completion method What happens to costs?

[...]
Answer
Contract costs for the period are expensed against the revenue.


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In the % of completion method What happens to costs? Contract costs for the period are expensed against the revenue.

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3.2.1. Long-Term Contracts
ts. Under the percentage-of-completion method, in each accounting period, the company estimates what percentage of the contract is complete and then reports that percentage of the total contract revenue in its income statement. <span>Contract costs for the period are expensed against the revenue. Therefore, net income or profit is reported each year as work is performed. Under IFRS, if the outcome of the contract cannot be measured reliably, then revenue may be reco







Arabists should analyze the ways in which generations of amateur audiences reinterpreted old literature in order to breathe new life into traditional texts, which can turn cold and alien. Without an analysis of audience reception, we are left with a canon detached from the particular needs and choosy sensibilities of those who exercised the privilege of selecting texts for future transmission—or not.

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Flashcard 1622919744780

Tags
#discounted-cashflow-applications
Question
Management of a company’s short-term assets.


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Flashcard 1622938619148

Tags
#discounted-cashflow-applications
Question
The discount rate that makes the present value of an investment’s costs equal to the present value of the investment’s benefits.
Answer
IRR


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Flashcard 1624283155724

Tags
#discounted-cashflow-applications
Question
What is the preferred performance measure in the investment management industry?
Answer
time-weighted rate of return


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Flashcard 1624301767948

Tags
#discounted-cashflow-applications
Question
When we measure performance over many periods, or when the portfolio is [...] , portfolio performance measurement is a challenging task.
Answer
subject to additions and withdrawals


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Flashcard 1632800214284

Tags
#has-images #reading-7-discounted-cashflows-applications
Question

  • rBD = [...]
  • D = [...]
  • t = [...]
  • 360 = the bank convention of the number of days in a year.
Answer
the annualized yield on a bank discount basis

the dollar discount, which is equal to the difference between the face value of the bill, F, and its purchase price, P

the number of days remaining to maturity


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Subject 4. Different Yield Measures of a U.S. Treasury Bill
bills). Pure discount instruments such as T-bills are quoted differently than U.S. government bonds. They are quoted on a bank discount basis rather than on a price basis: <span>r BD = the annualized yield on a bank discount basis D = the dollar discount, which is equal to the difference between the face value of the bill, F, and its purchase price, P t = the number of days remaining to maturity 360 = the bank convention of the number of days in a year. Bank discount yield is not a meaningful measure of the return on investment because: It is based on the face value, not on the purchase price. Instead, return on inves







Flashcard 1635170258188

Tags
#reading-8-statistical-concepts-and-market-returns
Question
How do you estimate a parameter?
Answer
They are usually estimated by statistics computed in samples.


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Subject 1. The Nature of Statistics
mple are called statistics. A parameter is a numerical quantity measuring some aspect of a population of scores. The mean, for example, is a measure of central tendency. Greek letters are used to designate parameters. <span>Parameters are rarely known and are usually estimated by statistics computed in samples. Populations can have many parameters, but investment analysts are usually only concerned with a few, such as the mean return or the standard deviation of returns.







Flashcard 1641053293836

Tags
#reading-8-statistical-concepts-and-market-returns
Question
How is the distance between the mean and each outcome called ?
Answer
deviation.


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Flashcard 1641160772876

Tags
#has-images #quantitative-methods-basic-concepts #statistics
Question
For n = 2, the harmonic mean is related to arithmetic mean A and geometric mean G by:

Answer


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rs x i (where i = 1, 2, ..., n) is: The special cases of n = 2 and n = 3 are given by: and so on. <span>For n = 2, the harmonic mean is related to arithmetic mean A and geometric mean G by: <span><body><html>

Original toplevel document

Subject 4. Measures of Center Tendency
, therefore, is not recommended for use as the only measure of central tendency. A further disadvantage of the mode is that many distributions have more than one mode. These distributions are called "multimodal." <span>Harmonic Mean The harmonic mean of n numbers x i (where i = 1, 2, ..., n) is: The special cases of n = 2 and n = 3 are given by: and so on. For n = 2, the harmonic mean is related to arithmetic mean A and geometric mean G by: The mean, median, and mode are equal in symmetric distributions. The mean is higher than the median in positively skewed distributions and lower than the median in negatively skewed dist







Flashcard 1644926733580

Tags
#reading-9-probability-concepts
Question
The denominator in an conditional probability is [...] of the event that conditions it.
Answer
the sum of the probabilities for all outcomes


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Flashcard 1646697778444

Tags
#reading-8-statistical-concepts-and-market-returns
Question
A [...] scale describes a scale constructed so that equal intervals on the vertical scale represent equal rates of change, and equal intervals on the horizontal scale represent equal amounts of change.
Answer
semilogarithmic


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A semilogarithmic scale describes a scale constructed so that equal intervals on the vertical scale represent equal rates of change, and equal intervals on the horizontal scale represent equal amounts o







Flashcard 1647717780748

Tags
#reading-9-probability-concepts
Question
P(A|S1)P(S1) + P(A|S2)P(S2) +…+ P(A|Sn)P(Sn)

What does this equation say?
Answer
The probability of any event [P(A)] can be expressed as a weighted average of the probabilities of the event, given scenarios [terms such P(A | S1)]


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Flashcard 1647761820940

Tags
#reading-9-probability-concepts
Question
The [...] of a random variable is the expected value of squared deviations from the random variable’s expected value
Answer


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Flashcard 1647763918092

Tags
#reading-9-probability-concepts
Question
\(\sigma^2(X)=\)
Answer
\(\sigma^2 =E( {(X-E(X))^2}\)


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this risk of graft loss and overall mortality increase with the length of dialysis prior to transplant

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Flashcard 1649061530892

Question
this risk of graft loss and overall mortality increase with the length of [...] prior to transplant
Answer
dialysis


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this risk of graft loss and overall mortality increase with the length of dialysis prior to transplant

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study did not detect a significant protective effect of protein-restricted diets in preventing progression of kidney disease. However, low protein diets may delay onset of symptomatic uremia in patients with late-stage CKD (stage G4/G5).

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Flashcard 1649184214284

Question
is there any role for low protein diet in CKD patients ?
Answer
study did not detect a significant protective effect of protein-restricted diets in preventing progression of kidney disease. However, low protein diets may delay onset of symptomatic uremia in patients with late-stage CKD (stage G4/G5).


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study did not detect a significant protective effect of protein-restricted diets in preventing progression of kidney disease. However, low protein diets may delay onset of symptomatic uremia in patients with late-stage CKD (stage G4/G5).

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Alcoholic ketoacidosis occurs in patients with chronic ethanol abuse and liver disease and develops following an episode of acute intoxication, at which time the ingested ethanol may have already been extensively metabolized, leading to low or normal serum ethanol levels. Ethanol is oxidized to acetaldehyde and then to acetic acid,

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Flashcard 1649203088652

Question
Alcoholic ketoacidosis occurs in patients with chronic ethanol abuse and liver disease and develops following an episode of acute intoxication, at which time the ingested ethanol may have already been extensively metabolized, leading to [...] serum ethanol levels. Ethanol is oxidized to acetaldehyde and then to acetic acid,
Answer
low or normal


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dosis occurs in patients with chronic ethanol abuse and liver disease and develops following an episode of acute intoxication, at which time the ingested ethanol may have already been extensively metabolized, leading to <span>low or normal serum ethanol levels. Ethanol is oxidized to acetaldehyde and then to acetic acid,<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1649204661516

Question
Alcoholic ketoacidosis occurs in patients with chronic ethanol abuse and liver disease and develops following an episode of acute intoxication, at which time the ingested ethanol may have already been extensively metabolized, leading to low or normal serum ethanol levels. Ethanol is oxidized to [...] and then to acetic acid,
Answer
acetaldehyde


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nd liver disease and develops following an episode of acute intoxication, at which time the ingested ethanol may have already been extensively metabolized, leading to low or normal serum ethanol levels. Ethanol is oxidized to <span>acetaldehyde and then to acetic acid,<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1649206234380

Question
Alcoholic ketoacidosis occurs in patients with chronic ethanol abuse and liver disease and develops following an episode of acute intoxication, at which time the ingested ethanol may have already been extensively metabolized, leading to low or normal serum ethanol levels. Ethanol is oxidized to acetaldehyde and then to [...]
Answer
acetic acid,


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velops following an episode of acute intoxication, at which time the ingested ethanol may have already been extensively metabolized, leading to low or normal serum ethanol levels. Ethanol is oxidized to acetaldehyde and then to <span>acetic acid,<span><body><html>

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D-Lactic acidosis is an uncommon cause of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis that is typically identified in patients with small-bowel bacterial overgrowth.

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Flashcard 1649210166540

Question
D-Lactic acidosis is an uncommon cause of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis that is typically identified in patients with [...].
Answer
small-bowel bacterial overgrowth


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D-Lactic acidosis is an uncommon cause of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis that is typically identified in patients with small-bowel bacterial overgrowth.

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Rhabdomyolysis is a diagnostic consideration in a patient with a history of alcohol abuse and an anion gap metabolic acidosis, but this condition is frequently associated with hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and a urinalysis positive for blood with no erythrocytes visible on urine microscopy.

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Flashcard 1649213312268

Question
Rhabdomyolysis is a diagnostic consideration in a patient with a history of alcohol abuse and an anion gap metabolic acidosis, but this condition is frequently associated with [...]kalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and a urinalysis positive for blood with no erythrocytes visible on urine microscopy.
Answer
hyper


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Rhabdomyolysis is a diagnostic consideration in a patient with a history of alcohol abuse and an anion gap metabolic acidosis, but this condition is frequently associated with hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and a urinalysis positive for blood with no erythrocytes visible on urine microscopy.

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Flashcard 1649214885132

Question
Rhabdomyolysis is a diagnostic consideration in a patient with a history of alcohol abuse and an anion gap metabolic acidosis, but this condition is frequently associated with hyperkalemia, [...]phosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and a urinalysis positive for blood with no erythrocytes visible on urine microscopy.
Answer
hyper


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Rhabdomyolysis is a diagnostic consideration in a patient with a history of alcohol abuse and an anion gap metabolic acidosis, but this condition is frequently associated with hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and a urinalysis positive for blood with no erythrocytes visible on urine microscopy.

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Flashcard 1649216457996

Question
Rhabdomyolysis is a diagnostic consideration in a patient with a history of alcohol abuse and an anion gap metabolic acidosis, but this condition is frequently associated with hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, [...]calcemia, and a urinalysis positive for blood with no erythrocytes visible on urine microscopy.
Answer
hypo


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d><head>Rhabdomyolysis is a diagnostic consideration in a patient with a history of alcohol abuse and an anion gap metabolic acidosis, but this condition is frequently associated with hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and a urinalysis positive for blood with no erythrocytes visible on urine microscopy.<html>

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IgA vasculitis is associated with abdominal pain, palpable purpura, arthralgia, and glomerulonephritis, with normal complement levels.

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Flashcard 1649220652300

Question
IgA vasculitis is associated with abdominal pain, palpable purpura, arthralgia, and glomerulonephritis, with [...] complement levels.
Answer
normal


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IgA vasculitis is associated with abdominal pain, palpable purpura, arthralgia, and glomerulonephritis, with normal complement levels.

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Infection-related glomerulonephritis such as endocarditis activates the alternative pathway of complement with low C3 and normal C4 levels. The classical pathway of complement is activated with cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (C4, and sometimes C3, is depressed) and systemic lupus erythematosus (both C3 and C4 are low).

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Flashcard 1649224060172

Question
Infection-related glomerulonephritis such as endocarditis activates the alternative pathway of complement with [...] C3 and normal C4 levels. The classical pathway of complement is activated with cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (C4, and sometimes C3, is depressed) and systemic lupus erythematosus (both C3 and C4 are low).
Answer
low


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Infection-related glomerulonephritis such as endocarditis activates the alternative pathway of complement with low C3 and normal C4 levels. The classical pathway of complement is activated with cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (C4, and sometimes C3, is depressed) and systemic lupus ery

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Flashcard 1649225895180

Question
Infection-related glomerulonephritis such as endocarditis activates the alternative pathway of complement with low C3 and [...] C4 levels. The classical pathway of complement is activated with cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (C4, and sometimes C3, is depressed) and systemic lupus erythematosus (both C3 and C4 are low).
Answer
normal


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Infection-related glomerulonephritis such as endocarditis activates the alternative pathway of complement with low C3 and normal C4 levels. The classical pathway of complement is activated with cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (C4, and sometimes C3, is depressed) and systemic lupus erythematosus (bo

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Flashcard 1649227468044

Question
Infection-related glomerulonephritis such as endocarditis activates the alternative pathway of complement with low C3 and normal C4 levels. The classical pathway of complement is activated with cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (C4, and sometimes C3, is [...]) and systemic lupus erythematosus (both C3 and C4 are low).
Answer
depressed


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onephritis such as endocarditis activates the alternative pathway of complement with low C3 and normal C4 levels. The classical pathway of complement is activated with cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (C4, and sometimes C3, is <span>depressed) and systemic lupus erythematosus (both C3 and C4 are low).<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1649229040908

Question
Infection-related glomerulonephritis such as endocarditis activates the alternative pathway of complement with low C3 and normal C4 levels. The classical pathway of complement is activated with cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (C4, and sometimes C3, is depressed) and systemic lupus erythematosus (both C3 and C4 are [...]).
Answer
low


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way of complement with low C3 and normal C4 levels. The classical pathway of complement is activated with cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (C4, and sometimes C3, is depressed) and systemic lupus erythematosus (both C3 and C4 are <span>low).<span><body><html>

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cryoglobulinemic vasculitis is associated with hepatitis C virus infection,

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Flashcard 1649232186636

Question
cryoglobulinemic vasculitis is associated with [...] virus infection,
Answer
hepatitis C


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cryoglobulinemic vasculitis is associated with hepatitis C virus infection,

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Hypokalemia due to vomiting is associated with metabolic alkalosis, increased urine potassium excretion, and decreased urine chloride excretion.

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Flashcard 1649235332364

Question
Hypokalemia due to vomiting is associated with metabolic [...], increased urine potassium excretion, and decreased urine chloride excretion.
Answer
alkalosis


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Hypokalemia due to vomiting is associated with metabolic alkalosis, increased urine potassium excretion, and decreased urine chloride excretion.

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Flashcard 1649236905228

Question
Hypokalemia due to vomiting is associated with metabolic alkalosis, [...] urine potassium excretion, and decreased urine chloride excretion.
Answer
increased


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Hypokalemia due to vomiting is associated with metabolic alkalosis, increased urine potassium excretion, and decreased urine chloride excretion.

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Flashcard 1649238478092

Question
Hypokalemia due to vomiting is associated with metabolic alkalosis, increased urine potassium excretion, and [...] urine chloride excretion.
Answer
decreased


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Hypokalemia due to vomiting is associated with metabolic alkalosis, increased urine potassium excretion, and decreased urine chloride excretion.

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Hypovolemia activates the renin-angiotensin system with an increase in sodium-hydrogen exchange and increased bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule due to increased luminal hydrogen ion, and exacerbated by decreased chloride available for reabsorption with sodium.

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Flashcard 1649241623820

Question
Hypovolemia activates the renin-angiotensin system with an increase in [...] exchange and increased bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule due to increased luminal hydrogen ion, and exacerbated by decreased chloride available for reabsorption with sodium.
Answer
sodium-hydrogen


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Hypovolemia activates the renin-angiotensin system with an increase in sodium-hydrogen exchange and increased bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule due to increased luminal hydrogen ion, and exacerbated by decreased chloride available for reabsorption

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Flashcard 1649243196684

Question
Hypovolemia activates the renin-angiotensin system with an increase in sodium-hydrogen exchange and increased [...] reabsorption in the proximal tubule due to increased luminal hydrogen ion, and exacerbated by decreased chloride available for reabsorption with sodium.
Answer
bicarbonate


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Hypovolemia activates the renin-angiotensin system with an increase in sodium-hydrogen exchange and increased bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule due to increased luminal hydrogen ion, and exacerbated by decreased chloride available for reabsorption with sodium.<

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Flashcard 1649244769548

Question
Hypovolemia activates the renin-angiotensin system with an increase in sodium-hydrogen exchange and increased bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule due to increased luminal hydrogen ion, and exacerbated by decreased [...] available for reabsorption with sodium.
Answer
chloride


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pan>Hypovolemia activates the renin-angiotensin system with an increase in sodium-hydrogen exchange and increased bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule due to increased luminal hydrogen ion, and exacerbated by decreased chloride available for reabsorption with sodium.<span><body><html>

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The urine chloride concentration is low (<20 mEq/L [20 mmol/L]), reflecting gastrointestinal losses and prolonged volume contraction that leads to avid reabsorption of chloride with sodium.

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Flashcard 1649248177420

Question
The urine chloride concentration is low (<[...] mEq/L [20 mmol/L]), reflecting gastrointestinal losses and prolonged volume contraction that leads to avid reabsorption of chloride with sodium.
Answer
20


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The urine chloride concentration is low (<20 mEq/L [20 mmol/L]), reflecting gastrointestinal losses and prolonged volume contraction that leads to avid reabsorption of chloride with sodium.

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Flashcard 1649250012428

Question
The urine chloride concentration is low (<20 mEq/L [20 mmol/L]), reflecting [...] that leads to avid reabsorption of chloride with sodium.
Answer
gastrointestinal losses and prolonged volume contraction


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The urine chloride concentration is low (<20 mEq/L [20 mmol/L]), reflecting gastrointestinal losses and prolonged volume contraction that leads to avid reabsorption of chloride with sodium.

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Bartter syndrome mimics the effect of a loop diuretic and is accompanied by increased urine sodium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), urine potassium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), and chloride excretion (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]).

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Flashcard 1649253158156

Question
Bartter syndrome mimics the effect of a [...] diuretic and is accompanied by increased urine sodium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), urine potassium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), and chloride excretion (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]).
Answer
loop


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Bartter syndrome mimics the effect of a loop diuretic and is accompanied by increased urine sodium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), urine potassium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), and chloride excretion (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol

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Flashcard 1649254731020

Question
Bartter syndrome mimics the effect of a loop diuretic and is accompanied by increased urine sodium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), urine potassium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), and chloride excretion (>[...] mmol/L]).
Answer
40 mEq/L [40


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l>Bartter syndrome mimics the effect of a loop diuretic and is accompanied by increased urine sodium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), urine potassium (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]), and chloride excretion (>40 mEq/L [40 mmol/L]).<html>

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Hypokalemic periodic paralysis is due to a shift of potassium into cells and is not associated with a metabolic alkalosis; furthermore, urine potassium would be low (<20 mEq/L [20 mmol/L]) and not increased.

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Flashcard 1649257876748

Question
Hypokalemic periodic paralysis is due to a shift of potassium into cells and is not associated with a metabolic alkalosis; furthermore, urine potassium would be low (<[...] mmol/L]) and not increased.
Answer
20 mEq/L [20


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Hypokalemic periodic paralysis is due to a shift of potassium into cells and is not associated with a metabolic alkalosis; furthermore, urine potassium would be low (<20 mEq/L [20 mmol/L]) and not increased.

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Shiga toxin–associated hemolytic uremic syndrome is a diarrhea- associated syndrome of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and kidney failure caused by Shiga toxin– producing Escherichia coli.

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Flashcard 1649262071052

Question
Shiga toxin–associated hemolytic uremic syndrome is a diarrhea- associated syndrome of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and kidney failure caused by Shiga toxin– producing [...].
Answer
Escherichia coli


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Shiga toxin–associated hemolytic uremic syndrome is a diarrhea- associated syndrome of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and kidney failure caused by Shiga toxin– producing Escherichia coli.

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Flashcard 1649263643916

Question
Shiga toxin–associated [...] syndrome is a diarrhea- associated syndrome of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and kidney failure caused by Shiga toxin– producing Escherichia coli.
Answer
hemolytic uremic


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Shiga toxin–associated hemolytic uremic syndrome is a diarrhea- associated syndrome of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and kidney failure caused by Shiga toxin– producing Escherichia coli.<

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Ultrasonography is the preferred diagnostic imaging modality for pregnant patients with suspected nephrolithiasis because it does not expose patients to radiation.

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Flashcard 1649267576076

Question
[...] is the preferred diagnostic imaging modality for pregnant patients with suspected nephrolithiasis because it does not expose patients to radiation.
Answer
Ultrasonography


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Ultrasonography is the preferred diagnostic imaging modality for pregnant patients with suspected nephrolithiasis because it does not expose patients to radiation.

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Transvaginal ultrasonography may be used to detect distal ureteral stones in pregnant women with suspected nephrolithiasis and an unrevealing kidney ultrasound.

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Flashcard 1649270721804

Question
Transvaginal ultrasonography may be used to detect [...] stones in pregnant women with suspected nephrolithiasis and an unrevealing kidney ultrasound.
Answer
distal ureteral


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Transvaginal ultrasonography may be used to detect distal ureteral stones in pregnant women with suspected nephrolithiasis and an unrevealing kidney ultrasound.

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Patients with enteric hyperoxaluria and calcium oxalate nephrolithiasis may benefit from treatment with bile salt binders to decrease intestinal oxalate absorption.

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Flashcard 1649274129676

Question
Patients with enteric hyperoxaluria and calcium oxalate nephrolithiasis may benefit from treatment with [...] binders to decrease intestinal oxalate absorption.
Answer
bile salt


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Patients with enteric hyperoxaluria and calcium oxalate nephrolithiasis may benefit from treatment with bile salt binders to decrease intestinal oxalate absorption.

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Treatment with cholestyramine is an appropriate additional therapy for this patient with enteric hyperoxaluria.

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Flashcard 1649277537548

Question
Treatment with [...] is an appropriate additional therapy for this patient with enteric hyperoxaluria.
Answer
cholestyramine


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Treatment with cholestyramine is an appropriate additional therapy for this patient with enteric hyperoxaluria.

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Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are used in patients with idiopathic hypercalciuria to reduce calcium excretion in the urine by inducing mild hypovolemia that results in increased sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

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Flashcard 1649280945420

Question
Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are used in patients with idiopathic hyper[...] to reduce calcium excretion in the urine by inducing mild hypovolemia that results in increased sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Answer
calciuria


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Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are used in patients with idiopathic hypercalciuria to reduce calcium excretion in the urine by inducing mild hypovolemia that results in increased sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule.</s

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Flashcard 1649282780428

Question
Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are used in patients with idiopathic hypercalciuria to reduce calcium excretion in the urine by inducing mild hypovolemia that results in increased [...] reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Answer
sodium


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tml>Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are used in patients with idiopathic hypercalciuria to reduce calcium excretion in the urine by inducing mild hypovolemia that results in increased sodium reabsorption and passive calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule.<html>

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Flashcard 1649284353292

Question
Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are used in patients with idiopathic hypercalciuria to reduce calcium excretion in the urine by inducing mild hypovolemia that results in increased sodium reabsorption and passive [...] reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Answer
calcium


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n>Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are used in patients with idiopathic hypercalciuria to reduce calcium excretion in the urine by inducing mild hypovolemia that results in increased sodium reabsorption and passive <span>calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule.<span><body><html>

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Urine citrate inhibits stone formation by binding calcium in the tubular lumen, preventing it from precipitating with oxalate. Citrate excretion can be enhanced in patients with low urine citrate levels by alkalinizing the serum with potassium citrate, which decreases uptake of filtered citrate from the tubular lumen.

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Flashcard 1649289071884

Question
Urine citrate inhibits stone formation by binding [...] in the tubular lumen, preventing it from precipitating with oxalate. Citrate excretion can be enhanced in patients with low urine citrate levels by alkalinizing the serum with potassium citrate, which decreases uptake of filtered citrate from the tubular lumen.
Answer
calcium


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Urine citrate inhibits stone formation by binding calcium in the tubular lumen, preventing it from precipitating with oxalate. Citrate excretion can be enhanced in patients with low urine citrate levels by alkalinizing the serum with potass

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Flashcard 1649290644748

Question
Urine citrate inhibits stone formation by binding calcium in the tubular lumen, preventing it from precipitating with [...]. Citrate excretion can be enhanced in patients with low urine citrate levels by alkalinizing the serum with potassium citrate, which decreases uptake of filtered citrate from the tubular lumen.
Answer
oxalate


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Urine citrate inhibits stone formation by binding calcium in the tubular lumen, preventing it from precipitating with oxalate. Citrate excretion can be enhanced in patients with low urine citrate levels by alkalinizing the serum with potassium citrate, which decreases uptake of filtered citrate from the tub

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Flashcard 1649292217612

Question
Urine citrate inhibits stone formation by binding calcium in the tubular lumen, preventing it from precipitating with oxalate. Citrate excretion can be enhanced in patients with low urine citrate levels by alkalinizing the serum with [...], which decreases uptake of filtered citrate from the tubular lumen.
Answer
potassium citrate


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Urine citrate inhibits stone formation by binding calcium in the tubular lumen, preventing it from precipitating with oxalate. Citrate excretion can be enhanced in patients with low urine citrate levels by alkalinizing the serum with potassium citrate, which decreases uptake of filtered citrate from the tubular lumen.<span><body><html>

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The expected compensation for chronic respiratory alkalosis is a decrease in the serum bicarbonate of 4 to 5 mEq/L (4-5 mmol/L) for each 10 mm Hg (1.3 kPa) decrease in the PCO2. The expected serum bicarbonate concentration in this patient is calculated to be 14 to 16 mEq/L (14-16 mmol/L), and the measured serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L) suggests coexistence of a metabolic alkalosis.

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Flashcard 1649295887628

Question
The expected compensation for chronic respiratory alkalosis is a decrease in the serum bicarbonate of [...] mmol/L) for each 10 mm Hg (1.3 kPa) decrease in the PCO2. The expected serum bicarbonate concentration in this patient is calculated to be 14 to 16 mEq/L (14-16 mmol/L), and the measured serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L) suggests coexistence of a metabolic alkalosis.
Answer
4 to 5 mEq/L (4-5


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The expected compensation for chronic respiratory alkalosis is a decrease in the serum bicarbonate of 4 to 5 mEq/L (4-5 mmol/L) for each 10 mm Hg (1.3 kPa) decrease in the PCO2. The expected serum bicarbonate concentration in this patient is calculated to be 14 to 16 mEq/L (14-16 mmol/L), and the measu

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Calculating the ratio of the change in the anion gap (Δ anion gap) to the change in bicarbonate level (Δ bicarbonate), or the “Δ-Δ ratio,” can help confirm if there is a coexisting acid-base disturbance. A ratio of <1 may reflect the presence of concurrent normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, whereas a ratio of >2 may indicate the presence of metabolic alkalosis

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Flashcard 1649299295500

Question
Calculating the ratio of the change in the anion gap (Δ anion gap) to the change in bicarbonate level (Δ bicarbonate), or the “Δ-Δ ratio,” can help confirm if there is a coexisting acid-base disturbance. A ratio of <[...] may reflect the presence of concurrent normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, whereas a ratio of >2 may indicate the presence of metabolic alkalosis
Answer
1


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an>Calculating the ratio of the change in the anion gap (Δ anion gap) to the change in bicarbonate level (Δ bicarbonate), or the “Δ-Δ ratio,” can help confirm if there is a coexisting acid-base disturbance. A ratio of <1 may reflect the presence of concurrent normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, whereas a ratio of >2 may indicate the presence of metabolic alkalosis<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1649300868364

Question
Calculating the ratio of the change in the anion gap (Δ anion gap) to the change in bicarbonate level (Δ bicarbonate), or the “Δ-Δ ratio,” can help confirm if there is a coexisting acid-base disturbance. A ratio of <1 may reflect the presence of concurrent normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, whereas a ratio of >[...] may indicate the presence of metabolic alkalosis
Answer
2


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bicarbonate level (Δ bicarbonate), or the “Δ-Δ ratio,” can help confirm if there is a coexisting acid-base disturbance. A ratio of <1 may reflect the presence of concurrent normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, whereas a ratio of ><span>2 may indicate the presence of metabolic alkalosis<span><body><html>

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Evidence for a tubulointerstitial process includes a slowly progressive course without a clear inciting event, subnephrotic proteinuria, bland urine sediment, and a kidney ultrasound showing atrophic kidneys

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Flashcard 1649304276236

Question
Evidence for a tubulointerstitial process includes a slowly progressive course without a clear inciting event, [...] proteinuria, bland urine sediment, and a kidney ultrasound showing atrophic kidneys
Answer
subnephrotic


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Evidence for a tubulointerstitial process includes a slowly progressive course without a clear inciting event, subnephrotic proteinuria, bland urine sediment, and a kidney ultrasound showing atrophic kidneys

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Flashcard 1649305849100

Question
Evidence for a tubulointerstitial process includes a slowly progressive course without a clear inciting event, subnephrotic proteinuria, bland urine sediment, and a kidney ultrasound showing [...] kidneys
Answer
atrophic


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l>Evidence for a tubulointerstitial process includes a slowly progressive course without a clear inciting event, subnephrotic proteinuria, bland urine sediment, and a kidney ultrasound showing atrophic kidneys<html>

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An associated characteristic that may be present with tubulointerstitial disease is abnormal tubular handling of glucose, amino acids, uric acid, phosphate, and bicarbonate (termed Fanconi syndrome);

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Flashcard 1649309256972

Question
An associated characteristic that may be present with tubulointerstitial disease is abnormal tubular handling of [...], amino acids, uric acid, phosphate, and bicarbonate (termed Fanconi syndrome);
Answer
glucose


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An associated characteristic that may be present with tubulointerstitial disease is abnormal tubular handling of glucose, amino acids, uric acid, phosphate, and bicarbonate (termed Fanconi syndrome);

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Flashcard 1649310829836

Question
An associated characteristic that may be present with tubulointerstitial disease is abnormal tubular handling of glucose, amino acids, uric acid, phosphate, and bicarbonate (termed [...] syndrome);
Answer
Fanconi


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An associated characteristic that may be present with tubulointerstitial disease is abnormal tubular handling of glucose, amino acids, uric acid, phosphate, and bicarbonate (termed Fanconi syndrome);

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Hypertensive nephropathy involves damage to the vascular structures, glomeruli, and tubulointerstitial regions of the kidney. It may cause progressive kidney failure, often with elevated protein excretion (less than 1000 mg/24 h).

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Flashcard 1649314237708

Question
Hypertensive nephropathy involves damage to the vascular structures, glomeruli, and tubulointerstitial regions of the kidney. It may cause progressive kidney failure, often with [...] protein excretion (less than 1000 mg/24 h).
Answer
elevated


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Hypertensive nephropathy involves damage to the vascular structures, glomeruli, and tubulointerstitial regions of the kidney. It may cause progressive kidney failure, often with elevated protein excretion (less than 1000 mg/24 h).

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Flashcard 1649315810572

Question
Hypertensive nephropathy involves damage to the vascular structures, glomeruli, and tubulointerstitial regions of the kidney. It may cause progressive kidney failure, often with elevated protein excretion (less than [...] mg/24 h).
Answer
1000


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n>Hypertensive nephropathy involves damage to the vascular structures, glomeruli, and tubulointerstitial regions of the kidney. It may cause progressive kidney failure, often with elevated protein excretion (less than 1000 mg/24 h).<span><body><html>

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Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte casts), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a reduced glomerular filtration rate.

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Flashcard 1649320004876

Question
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis [...] infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte casts), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a reduced glomerular filtration rate.
Answer
B


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Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte casts), variable degrees

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Flashcard 1649321577740

Question
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves [...] deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte casts), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a reduced glomerular filtration rate.
Answer
immune complex


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Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte casts), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a reduced glomer

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Flashcard 1649323150604

Question
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with [...] (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte casts), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a reduced glomerular filtration rate.
Answer
hematuria


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Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte casts), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a reduced glomerular filtration rate.

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Flashcard 1649324723468

Question
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte [...]), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a reduced glomerular filtration rate.
Answer
casts


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erative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte <span>casts), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a reduced glomerular filtration rate.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1649326296332

Question
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis may also be associated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte casts), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a [...] glomerular filtration rate.
Answer
reduced


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ciated with chronic hepatitis B infection and involves immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. It typically presents with hematuria (often with dysmorphic erythrocytes and/or erythrocyte casts), variable degrees of proteinuria, and a <span>reduced glomerular filtration rate.<span><body><html>

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Membranous glomerulopathy is common in patients with chronic hepatitis B infection and appears to be related to subendothelial and mesangial immune deposits in the glomeruli. Because it primarily affects the glomeruli, it is associated with high levels of proteinuria, usually in the nephrotic range,

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Flashcard 1649329442060

Question
Membranous glomerulopathy is common in patients with chronic hepatitis [...] infection and appears to be related to subendothelial and mesangial immune deposits in the glomeruli. Because it primarily affects the glomeruli, it is associated with high levels of proteinuria, usually in the nephrotic range,
Answer
B


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Membranous glomerulopathy is common in patients with chronic hepatitis B infection and appears to be related to subendothelial and mesangial immune deposits in the glomeruli. Because it primarily affects the glomeruli, it is associated w

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Flashcard 1649331014924

Question
Membranous glomerulopathy is common in patients with chronic hepatitis B infection and appears to be related to subendothelial and mesangial immune deposits in the glomeruli. Because it primarily affects the glomeruli, it is associated with high levels of [...], usually in the nephrotic range,
Answer
proteinuria


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in patients with chronic hepatitis B infection and appears to be related to subendothelial and mesangial immune deposits in the glomeruli. Because it primarily affects the glomeruli, it is associated with high levels of <span>proteinuria, usually in the nephrotic range,<span><body><html>

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Intravenous dextrose-containing fluids can exacerbate hypophosphatemia by stimulating insulin release, which promotes phosphate uptake by the cells and worsening hypophosphatemia.

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Flashcard 1649335209228

Question
what is refeeding syndrome ?
Answer
Intravenous dextrose-containing fluids can exacerbate hypophosphatemia by stimulating insulin release, which promotes phosphate uptake by the cells and worsening hypophosphatemia.


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Intravenous dextrose-containing fluids can exacerbate hypophosphatemia by stimulating insulin release, which promotes phosphate uptake by the cells and worsening hypophosphatemia.

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The most likely cause of this patient's respiratory failure is hypophosphatemia, which occurs in patients with chronic alcohol use, malnutrition, or critical illness. Symptoms rarely occur unless the serum phosphate concentration is <2.0 mg/dL (0.65 mmol/L); severe symptoms occur with a serum phosphate concentration <1.0 mg/dL (0.32 mmol/L). Symptoms include weakness, myalgia, rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmias, heart failure, respiratory failure, seizures, coma, and hemolysis.

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Flashcard 1649339141388

Question
The most likely cause of this patient's respiratory failure is hypophosphatemia, which occurs in patients with chronic alcohol use, malnutrition, or critical illness. Symptoms rarely occur unless the serum phosphate concentration is <[...] mmol/L); severe symptoms occur with a serum phosphate concentration <1.0 mg/dL (0.32 mmol/L). Symptoms include weakness, myalgia, rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmias, heart failure, respiratory failure, seizures, coma, and hemolysis.
Answer
2.0 mg/dL (0.65


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ely cause of this patient's respiratory failure is hypophosphatemia, which occurs in patients with chronic alcohol use, malnutrition, or critical illness. Symptoms rarely occur unless the serum phosphate concentration is <<span>2.0 mg/dL (0.65 mmol/L); severe symptoms occur with a serum phosphate concentration <1.0 mg/dL (0.32 mmol/L). Symptoms include weakness, myalgia, rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmias, heart failure,

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Flashcard 1649340714252

Question
The most likely cause of this patient's respiratory failure is hypophosphatemia, which occurs in patients with chronic alcohol use, malnutrition, or critical illness. Symptoms rarely occur unless the serum phosphate concentration is <2.0 mg/dL (0.65 mmol/L); severe symptoms occur with a serum phosphate concentration <[...] mmol/L). Symptoms include weakness, myalgia, rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmias, heart failure, respiratory failure, seizures, coma, and hemolysis.
Answer
1.0 mg/dL (0.32


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rs in patients with chronic alcohol use, malnutrition, or critical illness. Symptoms rarely occur unless the serum phosphate concentration is <2.0 mg/dL (0.65 mmol/L); severe symptoms occur with a serum phosphate concentration <<span>1.0 mg/dL (0.32 mmol/L). Symptoms include weakness, myalgia, rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmias, heart failure, respiratory failure, seizures, coma, and hemolysis.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1649342287116

Question
The most likely cause of this patient's respiratory failure is hypophosphatemia, which occurs in patients with chronic alcohol use, malnutrition, or critical illness. Symptoms rarely occur unless the serum phosphate concentration is <2.0 mg/dL (0.65 mmol/L); severe symptoms occur with a serum phosphate concentration <1.0 mg/dL (0.32 mmol/L). Symptoms include [...].
Answer
weakness, myalgia, rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmias, heart failure, respiratory failure, seizures, coma, and hemolysis


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, malnutrition, or critical illness. Symptoms rarely occur unless the serum phosphate concentration is <2.0 mg/dL (0.65 mmol/L); severe symptoms occur with a serum phosphate concentration <1.0 mg/dL (0.32 mmol/L). Symptoms include <span>weakness, myalgia, rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmias, heart failure, respiratory failure, seizures, coma, and hemolysis.<span><body><html>

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Severe hypophosphatemia can cause respiratory failure from impaired diaphragmatic contractility

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Flashcard 1649345694988

Question
Severe hypophosphatemia can cause respiratory failure from impaired [...]
Answer
diaphragmatic contractility


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Severe hypophosphatemia can cause respiratory failure from impaired diaphragmatic contractility

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All NSAIDs contribute to hypertension by inhibition of cyclooxygenase-2 in the kidneys, promoting sodium retention and increased intravascular volume.

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Flashcard 1649348840716

Question
All NSAIDs contribute to [...] by inhibition of cyclooxygenase-2 in the kidneys, promoting sodium retention and increased intravascular volume.
Answer
hypertension


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All NSAIDs contribute to hypertension by inhibition of cyclooxygenase-2 in the kidneys, promoting sodium retention and increased intravascular volume.

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Additional effects of NSAIDs include hyperkalemia

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Flashcard 1649352248588

Question
Additional effects of NSAIDs include [...]kalemia
Answer
hyper


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Additional effects of NSAIDs include hyperkalemia

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Manifestations of D-lactic acidosis include intermittent confusion, slurred speech, ataxia, and an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis with a normal plasma lactate level.

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Flashcard 1649356967180

Question
Manifestations of D-lactic acidosis include intermittent confusion, slurred speech, ataxia, and an [...] anion gap metabolic acidosis with a normal plasma lactate level.
Answer
increased


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Manifestations of D-lactic acidosis include intermittent confusion, slurred speech, ataxia, and an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis with a normal plasma lactate level.

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Flashcard 1649358540044

Question
Manifestations of D-lactic acidosis include intermittent confusion, slurred speech, ataxia, and an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis with a [...] plasma lactate level.
Answer
normal


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Manifestations of D-lactic acidosis include intermittent confusion, slurred speech, ataxia, and an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis with a normal plasma lactate level.

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Flashcard 1649360112908

Question
Manifestations of D-lactic acidosis include intermittent [...], and an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis with a normal plasma lactate level.
Answer
confusion, slurred speech, ataxia


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Manifestations of D-lactic acidosis include intermittent confusion, slurred speech, ataxia, and an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis with a normal plasma lactate level.

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This patient has an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis, and the most likely cause is D-lactic acidosis. Accumulation of the D-isomer of lactate can occur in patients with short-bowel syndrome following jejunoileal bypass or small-bowel resection

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Flashcard 1649363258636

Question
This patient has an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis, and the most likely cause is D-lactic acidosis. Accumulation of the D-isomer of lactate can occur in patients with [...]
Answer
short-bowel syndrome following jejunoileal bypass or small-bowel resection


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This patient has an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis, and the most likely cause is D-lactic acidosis. Accumulation of the D-isomer of lactate can occur in patients with short-bowel syndrome following jejunoileal bypass or small-bowel resection

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Ethylene glycol or methanol intoxication should be suspected in patients with an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis associated with a serum bicarbonate level <10 mEq/L (10 mmol/L) and a plasma osmolal gap >10 mOsm/kg H 2 O.

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Flashcard 1649366404364

Question
Ethylene glycol or methanol intoxication should be suspected in patients with an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis associated with a serum bicarbonate level <[...] mmol/L) and a plasma osmolal gap >10 mOsm/kg H 2 O.
Answer
10 mEq/L (10


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Ethylene glycol or methanol intoxication should be suspected in patients with an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis associated with a serum bicarbonate level <10 mEq/L (10 mmol/L) and a plasma osmolal gap >10 mOsm/kg H 2 O.

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Flashcard 1649367977228

Question
Ethylene glycol or methanol intoxication should be suspected in patients with an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis associated with a serum bicarbonate level <10 mEq/L (10 mmol/L) and a plasma osmolal gap >[...] mOsm/kg H 2 O.
Answer
10


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<head>Ethylene glycol or methanol intoxication should be suspected in patients with an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis associated with a serum bicarbonate level <10 mEq/L (10 mmol/L) and a plasma osmolal gap >10 mOsm/kg H 2 O.<html>

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Pyroglutamic acidosis is a cause of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis in patients receiving therapeutic doses of acetaminophen on a chronic basis. Clinical manifestations are limited to mental status changes and increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. The syndrome most commonly occurs in patients with critical illness, poor nutrition, liver disease, or chronic kidney disease as well as in persons on a vegetarian diet. Diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring urine levels of pyroglutamic acid.

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Flashcard 1649371385100

Question
Pyroglutamic acidosis is a cause of [...] anion gap metabolic acidosis in patients receiving therapeutic doses of acetaminophen on a chronic basis. Clinical manifestations are limited to mental status changes and increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. The syndrome most commonly occurs in patients with critical illness, poor nutrition, liver disease, or chronic kidney disease as well as in persons on a vegetarian diet. Diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring urine levels of pyroglutamic acid.
Answer
increased


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Pyroglutamic acidosis is a cause of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis in patients receiving therapeutic doses of acetaminophen on a chronic basis. Clinical manifestations are limited to mental status changes and increased a

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Flashcard 1649372957964

Question
Pyroglutamic acidosis is a cause of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis in patients receiving therapeutic doses of [...] on a chronic basis. Clinical manifestations are limited to mental status changes and increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. The syndrome most commonly occurs in patients with critical illness, poor nutrition, liver disease, or chronic kidney disease as well as in persons on a vegetarian diet. Diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring urine levels of pyroglutamic acid.
Answer
acetaminophen


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Pyroglutamic acidosis is a cause of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis in patients receiving therapeutic doses of acetaminophen on a chronic basis. Clinical manifestations are limited to mental status changes and increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. The syndrome most commonly occurs in patients with critic

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Flashcard 1649374530828

Question
Pyroglutamic acidosis is a cause of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis in patients receiving therapeutic doses of acetaminophen on a chronic basis. Clinical manifestations are limited to mental status changes and increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. The syndrome most commonly occurs in patients with critical illness, poor nutrition, liver disease, or chronic kidney disease as well as in persons on a [...] diet. Diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring urine levels of pyroglutamic acid.
Answer
vegetarian


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tions are limited to mental status changes and increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. The syndrome most commonly occurs in patients with critical illness, poor nutrition, liver disease, or chronic kidney disease as well as in persons on a <span>vegetarian diet. Diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring urine levels of pyroglutamic acid.<span><body><html>

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Flashcard 1649376103692

Question
Pyroglutamic acidosis is a cause of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis in patients receiving therapeutic doses of acetaminophen on a chronic basis. Clinical manifestations are limited to mental status changes and increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. The syndrome most commonly occurs in patients with critical illness, poor nutrition, liver disease, or chronic kidney disease as well as in persons on a vegetarian diet. Diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring urine levels of [...] acid.
Answer
pyroglutamic


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ic acidosis. The syndrome most commonly occurs in patients with critical illness, poor nutrition, liver disease, or chronic kidney disease as well as in persons on a vegetarian diet. Diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring urine levels of <span>pyroglutamic acid.<span><body><html>

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Measurement of urine chloride levels can be useful to determine volume status and saline responsiveness in patients with metabolic alkalosis.

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Flashcard 1649379773708

Question
Measurement of urine chloride levels can be useful to determine volume status and saline responsiveness in patients with metabolic [...].
Answer
alkalosis


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Measurement of urine chloride levels can be useful to determine volume status and saline responsiveness in patients with metabolic alkalosis.

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Urine chloride measurement can help determine the cause of metabolic alkalosis, particularly if it is difficult to clinically assess volume status. In such patients, a low (<15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]) urine chloride suggests reduction in extracellular volume and the presence of saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis.

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Flashcard 1649383443724

Question
Urine chloride measurement can help determine the cause of metabolic alkalosis, particularly if it is difficult to clinically assess volume status. In such patients, a low (<[...] mmol/L]) urine chloride suggests reduction in extracellular volume and the presence of saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis.
Answer
15 mEq/L [15


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Urine chloride measurement can help determine the cause of metabolic alkalosis, particularly if it is difficult to clinically assess volume status. In such patients, a low (<15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]) urine chloride suggests reduction in extracellular volume and the presence of saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis.

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Flashcard 1649385278732

Question
Urine chloride measurement can help determine the cause of metabolic alkalosis, particularly if it is difficult to clinically assess volume status. In such patients, a low (<15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]) urine chloride suggests [...] in extracellular volume and the presence of saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis.
Answer
reduction


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body>Urine chloride measurement can help determine the cause of metabolic alkalosis, particularly if it is difficult to clinically assess volume status. In such patients, a low (<15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]) urine chloride suggests reduction in extracellular volume and the presence of saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis.<body><html>

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Flashcard 1649386851596

Question
Urine chloride measurement can help determine the cause of metabolic alkalosis, particularly if it is difficult to clinically assess volume status. In such patients, a low (<15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]) urine chloride suggests reduction in extracellular volume and the presence of saline-[...] metabolic alkalosis.
Answer
responsive


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the cause of metabolic alkalosis, particularly if it is difficult to clinically assess volume status. In such patients, a low (<15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]) urine chloride suggests reduction in extracellular volume and the presence of saline-<span>responsive metabolic alkalosis.<span><body><html>

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Conditions that are associated with saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis include vomiting, remote use of diuretics, and post-hypercapnic metabolic alkalosis.

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Flashcard 1649390259468

Question
Conditions that are associated with saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis include [...] metabolic alkalosis.
Answer
vomiting, remote use of diuretics, and post-hypercapnic


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Conditions that are associated with saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis include vomiting, remote use of diuretics, and post-hypercapnic metabolic alkalosis.

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If the urine chloride is high (>15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]), the metabolic alkalosis is saline resistant and can be caused by active diuretic use, stimulant laxative abuse, and rare renal tubular disorders such as Gitelman and Bartter syndromes.

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Flashcard 1649393667340

Question
If the urine chloride is high (>[...] mmol/L]), the metabolic alkalosis is saline resistant and can be caused by active diuretic use, stimulant laxative abuse, and rare renal tubular disorders such as Gitelman and Bartter syndromes.
Answer
15 mEq/L [15


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If the urine chloride is high (>15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]), the metabolic alkalosis is saline resistant and can be caused by active diuretic use, stimulant laxative abuse, and rare renal tubular disorders such as Gitelman and Bartte

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Flashcard 1649395240204

Question
If the urine chloride is high (>15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]), the metabolic alkalosis is saline [...] and can be caused by active diuretic use, stimulant laxative abuse, and rare renal tubular disorders such as Gitelman and Bartter syndromes.
Answer
resistant


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If the urine chloride is high (>15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]), the metabolic alkalosis is saline resistant and can be caused by active diuretic use, stimulant laxative abuse, and rare renal tubular disorders such as Gitelman and Bartter syndromes.

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Flashcard 1649397075212

Question
If the urine chloride is high (>15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]), the metabolic alkalosis is saline resistant and can be caused by active [...], and rare renal tubular disorders such as Gitelman and Bartter syndromes.
Answer
diuretic use, stimulant laxative abuse


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If the urine chloride is high (>15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]), the metabolic alkalosis is saline resistant and can be caused by active diuretic use, stimulant laxative abuse, and rare renal tubular disorders such as Gitelman and Bartter syndromes.

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Flashcard 1649398648076

Question
If the urine chloride is high (>15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]), the metabolic alkalosis is saline resistant and can be caused by active diuretic use, stimulant laxative abuse, and rare renal tubular disorders such as [...] syndromes.
Answer
Gitelman and Bartter


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ead><head>If the urine chloride is high (>15 mEq/L [15 mmol/L]), the metabolic alkalosis is saline resistant and can be caused by active diuretic use, stimulant laxative abuse, and rare renal tubular disorders such as Gitelman and Bartter syndromes.<html>

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In patients with metabolic alkalosis, measurement of urine chloride rather than urine sodium is used to determine volume status and saline responsiveness

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Flashcard 1649404153100

Question
In patients with metabolic alkalosis, measurement of urine chloride rather than urine sodium is used to determine [...]
Answer
volume status and saline responsiveness


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In patients with metabolic alkalosis, measurement of urine chloride rather than urine sodium is used to determine volume status and saline responsiveness

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A negative family history does not exclude autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)—approximately 15% of patients with ADPKD have spontaneous mutations that result in the disease.

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Flashcard 1649407560972

Question
did negative family history exclude autosomal dominant polycystic kidney ?
Answer
A negative family history does not exclude autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)—approximately 15% of patients with ADPKD have spontaneous mutations that result in the disease


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A negative family history does not exclude autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)—approximately 15% of patients with ADPKD have spontaneous mutations that result in the disease.

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Patients with tumor lysis syndrome and evidence of uric acid nephropathy require treatment with rasburicase to reduce serum urate levels.

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Flashcard 1649412803852

Question
Patients with tumor lysis syndrome and evidence of uric acid nephropathy require treatment with [...] to reduce serum urate levels.
Answer
rasburicase


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Patients with tumor lysis syndrome and evidence of uric acid nephropathy require treatment with rasburicase to reduce serum urate levels.

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Rasburicase is appropriate to treat hyperuricemia in this patient with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). TLS is characterized by the massive release of uric acid, potassium, and phosphate into the blood from rapid lysis of malignant cells. It typically occurs after initiation of cytotoxic therapy for hematologic malignancies with large tumor burden (such as high-grade lymphomas) or high cell counts (such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia),

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Flashcard 1649415949580

Question
Rasburicase is appropriate to treat hyperuricemia in this patient with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). TLS is characterized by the massive release of [...] into the blood from rapid lysis of malignant cells. It typically occurs after initiation of cytotoxic therapy for hematologic malignancies with large tumor burden (such as high-grade lymphomas) or high cell counts (such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia),
Answer
uric acid, potassium, and phosphate


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Rasburicase is appropriate to treat hyperuricemia in this patient with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). TLS is characterized by the massive release of uric acid, potassium, and phosphate into the blood from rapid lysis of malignant cells. It typically occurs after initiation of cytotoxic therapy for hematologic malignancies with large tumor burden (such as h

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Flashcard 1649417784588

Question
Rasburicase is appropriate to treat hyperuricemia in this patient with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). TLS is characterized by the massive release of uric acid, potassium, and phosphate into the blood from rapid lysis of malignant cells. It typically occurs after initiation of [...] therapy for hematologic malignancies with large tumor burden (such as high-grade lymphomas) or high cell counts (such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia),
Answer
cytotoxic


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uricemia in this patient with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). TLS is characterized by the massive release of uric acid, potassium, and phosphate into the blood from rapid lysis of malignant cells. It typically occurs after initiation of <span>cytotoxic therapy for hematologic malignancies with large tumor burden (such as high-grade lymphomas) or high cell counts (such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia),<span><body><html>

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Rasburicase rapidly converts uric acid to allantoin, which is 5 to 10 times more soluble than uric acid and readily excreted through the kidney. Rasburicase has a much faster action than allopurinol and can decrease serum urate levels within 4 hours of administration.

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Flashcard 1649420930316

Question
Rasburicase rapidly converts uric acid to [...], which is 5 to 10 times more soluble than uric acid and readily excreted through the kidney. Rasburicase has a much faster action than allopurinol and can decrease serum urate levels within 4 hours of administration.
Answer
allantoin


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Rasburicase rapidly converts uric acid to allantoin, which is 5 to 10 times more soluble than uric acid and readily excreted through the kidney. Rasburicase has a much faster action than allopurinol and can decrease serum urate levels

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Flashcard 1649422503180

Question
Rasburicase rapidly converts uric acid to allantoin, which is [...] times more soluble than uric acid and readily excreted through the kidney. Rasburicase has a much faster action than allopurinol and can decrease serum urate levels within 4 hours of administration.
Answer
5 to 10


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Rasburicase rapidly converts uric acid to allantoin, which is 5 to 10 times more soluble than uric acid and readily excreted through the kidney. Rasburicase has a much faster action than allopurinol and can decrease serum urate levels within 4 hours of

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Flashcard 1649424076044

Question
Rasburicase rapidly converts uric acid to allantoin, which is 5 to 10 times more soluble than uric acid and readily excreted through the kidney. Rasburicase has a much faster action than allopurinol and can decrease serum urate levels within [...] hours of administration.
Answer
4


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sburicase rapidly converts uric acid to allantoin, which is 5 to 10 times more soluble than uric acid and readily excreted through the kidney. Rasburicase has a much faster action than allopurinol and can decrease serum urate levels within <span>4 hours of administration.<span><body><html>

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Urine alkalinization increases the excretion of uric acid by increasing its solubility. However, in the setting of hyperphosphatemia, it can cause precipitation of calcium phosphate crystals in the kidney. Urine alkalinization is not necessary when rasburicase is used, and it role in TLS is controversial

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Flashcard 1649427483916

Question
Urine alkalinization increases the excretion of uric acid by increasing its solubility. However, in the setting of hyperphosphatemia, it can cause precipitation of [...] crystals in the kidney. Urine alkalinization is not necessary when rasburicase is used, and it role in TLS is controversial
Answer
calcium phosphate


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Urine alkalinization increases the excretion of uric acid by increasing its solubility. However, in the setting of hyperphosphatemia, it can cause precipitation of calcium phosphate crystals in the kidney. Urine alkalinization is not necessary when rasburicase is used, and it role in TLS is controversial

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Allopurinol competitively inhibits xanthine oxidase, blocking the metabolism of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol effectively decreases the formation of new uric acid and therefore does not affect circulating uric acid

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Flashcard 1649431153932

Question
Allopurinol competitively inhibits [...], blocking the metabolism of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol effectively decreases the formation of new uric acid and therefore does not affect circulating uric acid
Answer
xanthine oxidase


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Allopurinol competitively inhibits xanthine oxidase, blocking the metabolism of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol effectively decreases the formation of new uric acid and therefore does not affect circulati

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Flashcard 1649432726796

Question
Allopurinol competitively inhibits xanthine oxidase, blocking the metabolism of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol effectively decreases the formation of [...] uric acid and therefore does not affect circulating uric acid
Answer
new


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Allopurinol competitively inhibits xanthine oxidase, blocking the metabolism of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol effectively decreases the formation of new uric acid and therefore does not affect circulating uric acid

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Flashcard 1649434299660

Question
Allopurinol competitively inhibits xanthine oxidase, blocking the metabolism of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol effectively decreases the formation of new uric acid and therefore does not affect [...] uric acid
Answer
circulating


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span>Allopurinol competitively inhibits xanthine oxidase, blocking the metabolism of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol effectively decreases the formation of new uric acid and therefore does not affect circulating uric acid<span><body><html>

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Observation with serial blood pressure measurements, urine studies, and serum creatinine levels is appropriate for patients with IgA nephropathy with low-risk features for progression

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Flashcard 1649437969676

Question
follow up of IGA nephropathy ?
Answer
Observation with serial blood pressure measurements, urine studies, and serum creatinine levels is appropriate for patients with IgA nephropathy with low-risk features for progression


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Observation with serial blood pressure measurements, urine studies, and serum creatinine levels is appropriate for patients with IgA nephropathy with low-risk features for progression

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Preeclampsia is classically defined as new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 h or a urine protein- creatinine ratio ≥300 mg/g). Delivery of the baby is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia

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Flashcard 1649443212556

Question
Preeclampsia is classically defined as new-onset hypertension after [...] weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 h or a urine protein- creatinine ratio ≥300 mg/g). Delivery of the baby is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia
Answer
20


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Preeclampsia is classically defined as new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 h or a urine protein- creatinine ratio ≥300 mg/g). Delivery of the baby is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia

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Flashcard 1649444785420

Question
Preeclampsia is classically defined as new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria (≥[...] mg/24 h or a urine protein- creatinine ratio ≥300 mg/g). Delivery of the baby is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia
Answer
300


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Preeclampsia is classically defined as new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 h or a urine protein- creatinine ratio ≥300 mg/g). Delivery of the baby is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia

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Flashcard 1649446358284

Question
Preeclampsia is classically defined as new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 h or a urine protein- creatinine ratio ≥300 mg/g). [...] is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia
Answer
Delivery of the baby


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Preeclampsia is classically defined as new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 h or a urine protein- creatinine ratio ≥300 mg/g). Delivery of the baby is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia

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In patients with preeclampsia and severe disease, generally defined as severe hypertension (systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mm Hg), thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/µL [100 × 109/L]), kidney dysfunction (serum creatinine concentration >1.1 mg/dL [97.2 µmol/L] or doubling of the serum creatinine concentration in the absence of other kidney disease), impaired liver function (elevated blood concentrations of liver aminotransferases to twice the normal concentration), pulmonary edema, or cerebral or visual symptoms, management decisions are usually made based on the balance of fetal and maternal risk with the implications of preterm delivery.

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Flashcard 1649450028300

Question
In patients with preeclampsia and severe disease, generally defined as severe hypertension (systolic blood pressure ≥[...] mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mm Hg), thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/µL [100 × 109/L]), kidney dysfunction (serum creatinine concentration >1.1 mg/dL [97.2 µmol/L] or doubling of the serum creatinine concentration in the absence of other kidney disease), impaired liver function (elevated blood concentrations of liver aminotransferases to twice the normal concentration), pulmonary edema, or cerebral or visual symptoms, management decisions are usually made based on the balance of fetal and maternal risk with the implications of preterm delivery.
Answer
160


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In patients with preeclampsia and severe disease, generally defined as severe hypertension (systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mm Hg), thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/µL [100 × 109/L]), kidney dysfunction (serum creatinine concentration >1.1 mg/dL [

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Flashcard 1649451601164

Question
In patients with preeclampsia and severe disease, generally defined as severe hypertension (systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥[...] mm Hg), thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/µL [100 × 109/L]), kidney dysfunction (serum creatinine concentration >1.1 mg/dL [97.2 µmol/L] or doubling of the serum creatinine concentration in the absence of other kidney disease), impaired liver function (elevated blood concentrations of liver aminotransferases to twice the normal concentration), pulmonary edema, or cerebral or visual symptoms, management decisions are usually made based on the balance of fetal and maternal risk with the implications of preterm delivery.
Answer
110


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In patients with preeclampsia and severe disease, generally defined as severe hypertension (systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mm Hg), thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/µL [100 × 109/L]), kidney dysfunction (serum creatinine concentration >1.1 mg/dL [97.2 µmol/L] or doubling of the s

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Flashcard 1649453174028

Question
In patients with preeclampsia and severe disease, generally defined as severe hypertension (systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mm Hg), thrombocytopenia (platelet count <[...] × 109/L]), kidney dysfunction (serum creatinine concentration >1.1 mg/dL [97.2 µmol/L] or doubling of the serum creatinine concentration in the absence of other kidney disease), impaired liver function (elevated blood concentrations of liver aminotransferases to twice the normal concentration), pulmonary edema, or cerebral or visual symptoms, management decisions are usually made based on the balance of fetal and maternal risk with the implications of preterm delivery.
Answer
100,000/µL [100


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head><head>In patients with preeclampsia and severe disease, generally defined as severe hypertension (systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mm Hg), thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/µL [100 × 109/L]), kidney dysfunction (serum creatinine concentration >1.1 mg/dL [97.2 µmol/L] or doubling of the serum creatinine concentration in the absence of other kidney d

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Flashcard 1649454746892

Question
In patients with preeclampsia and severe disease, generally defined as severe hypertension (systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mm Hg), thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/µL [100 × 109/L]), kidney dysfunction (serum creatinine concentration >1.1 mg/dL [97.2 µmol/L] or doubling of the serum creatinine concentration in the absence of other kidney disease), impaired liver function (elevated blood concentrations of liver aminotransferases to [...] the normal concentration), pulmonary edema, or cerebral or visual symptoms, management decisions are usually made based on the balance of fetal and maternal risk with the implications of preterm delivery.
Answer
twice


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ine concentration >1.1 mg/dL [97.2 µmol/L] or doubling of the serum creatinine concentration in the absence of other kidney disease), impaired liver function (elevated blood concentrations of liver aminotransferases to <span>twice the normal concentration), pulmonary edema, or cerebral or visual symptoms, management decisions are usually made based on the balance of fetal and maternal risk with the

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antihypertensive treatment is generally reserved for patients with preeclampsia with severe hypertension

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Flashcard 1649457892620

Question
antihypertensive treatment is generally reserved for patients with preeclampsia with [...]
Answer
severe hypertension


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antihypertensive treatment is generally reserved for patients with preeclampsia with severe hypertension

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In obese patients with likely secondary focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, weight loss is sometimes associated with a drop in proteinuria, as is the use of ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers, and is the preferred initial therapy.

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Flashcard 1649462086924

Question
In obese patients with likely secondary focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, [...] is sometimes associated with a drop in proteinuria, as is the use of ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers, and is the preferred initial therapy.
Answer
weight loss


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In obese patients with likely secondary focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, weight loss is sometimes associated with a drop in proteinuria, as is the use of ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers, and is the preferred initial therapy.

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Primary FSGS involves glomerular injury due to an unclear insult; features suggesting primary FSGS include a low serum albumin level and extensive foot process effacement on kidney biopsy. Patients usually present with hypertension, hypoalbuminemia, and some degree of kidney failure in addition to nephrotic-range proteinuria. Some patients with primary FSGS respond well to immunosuppressive therapy, and this is typically offered to patients with this diagnosis.

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Flashcard 1649466019084

Question
Primary FSGS involves glomerular injury due to an unclear insult; features suggesting primary FSGS include a [...] serum albumin level and extensive foot process effacement on kidney biopsy. Patients usually present with hypertension, hypoalbuminemia, and some degree of kidney failure in addition to nephrotic-range proteinuria. Some patients with primary FSGS respond well to immunosuppressive therapy, and this is typically offered to patients with this diagnosis.
Answer
low


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Primary FSGS involves glomerular injury due to an unclear insult; features suggesting primary FSGS include a low serum albumin level and extensive foot process effacement on kidney biopsy. Patients usually present with hypertension, hypoalbuminemia, and some degree of kidney failure in ad

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Flashcard 1649467591948

Question
Primary FSGS involves glomerular injury due to an unclear insult; features suggesting primary FSGS include a low serum albumin level and [...] foot process effacement on kidney biopsy. Patients usually present with hypertension, hypoalbuminemia, and some degree of kidney failure in addition to nephrotic-range proteinuria. Some patients with primary FSGS respond well to immunosuppressive therapy, and this is typically offered to patients with this diagnosis.
Answer
extensive


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Primary FSGS involves glomerular injury due to an unclear insult; features suggesting primary FSGS include a low serum albumin level and extensive foot process effacement on kidney biopsy. Patients usually present with hypertension, hypoalbuminemia, and some degree of kidney failure in addition to nephrotic-range proteinu

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Flashcard 1649469164812

Question
Primary FSGS involves glomerular injury due to an unclear insult; features suggesting primary FSGS include a low serum albumin level and extensive foot process effacement on kidney biopsy. Patients usually present with hypertension, hypoalbuminemia, and some degree of kidney failure in addition to nephrotic-range proteinuria. Some patients with primary FSGS respond well to [...] therapy, and this is typically offered to patients with this diagnosis.
Answer
immunosuppressive


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ive foot process effacement on kidney biopsy. Patients usually present with hypertension, hypoalbuminemia, and some degree of kidney failure in addition to nephrotic-range proteinuria. Some patients with primary FSGS respond well to <span>immunosuppressive therapy, and this is typically offered to patients with this diagnosis.<span><body><html>

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Secondary FSGS is believed to result from an adaptive response to glomerular hypertrophy or hyperfiltration associated with a number of conditions (including obesity) in which the glomerular filtration rate may be markedly increased; glomeruli on biopsy are often enlarged, reflecting hyperfiltration with only mild foot process effacement. These patients have minimal edema and rarely have the full spectrum of the nephrotic syndrome.

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Flashcard 1649472572684

Question
Secondary FSGS is believed to result from an adaptive response to glomerular [...] associated with a number of conditions (including obesity) in which the glomerular filtration rate may be markedly increased; glomeruli on biopsy are often enlarged, reflecting hyperfiltration with only mild foot process effacement. These patients have minimal edema and rarely have the full spectrum of the nephrotic syndrome.
Answer
hypertrophy or hyperfiltration


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Secondary FSGS is believed to result from an adaptive response to glomerular hypertrophy or hyperfiltration associated with a number of conditions (including obesity) in which the glomerular filtration rate may be markedly increased; glomeruli on biopsy are often enlarged, reflecting hyper

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Flashcard 1649474145548

Question
Secondary FSGS is believed to result from an adaptive response to glomerular hypertrophy or hyperfiltration associated with a number of conditions (including [...]) in which the glomerular filtration rate may be markedly increased; glomeruli on biopsy are often enlarged, reflecting hyperfiltration with only mild foot process effacement. These patients have minimal edema and rarely have the full spectrum of the nephrotic syndrome.
Answer
obesity


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Secondary FSGS is believed to result from an adaptive response to glomerular hypertrophy or hyperfiltration associated with a number of conditions (including obesity) in which the glomerular filtration rate may be markedly increased; glomeruli on biopsy are often enlarged, reflecting hyperfiltration with only mild foot process effacement. These p

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Flashcard 1649475718412

Question
Secondary FSGS is believed to result from an adaptive response to glomerular hypertrophy or hyperfiltration associated with a number of conditions (including obesity) in which the glomerular filtration rate may be markedly increased; glomeruli on biopsy are often enlarged, reflecting hyperfiltration with only [...] foot process effacement. These patients have minimal edema and rarely have the full spectrum of the nephrotic syndrome.
Answer
mild


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ar hypertrophy or hyperfiltration associated with a number of conditions (including obesity) in which the glomerular filtration rate may be markedly increased; glomeruli on biopsy are often enlarged, reflecting hyperfiltration with only <span>mild foot process effacement. These patients have minimal edema and rarely have the full spectrum of the nephrotic syndrome.<span><body><html>

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Acute kidney injury is a common result of cholesterol embolization, which causes peripheral eosinophilia and hypocomplementemia and shows evidence of inflammation on urinalysis, frequently with eosinophiluria present.

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Flashcard 1649479388428

Question
Acute kidney injury is a common result of cholesterol embolization, which causes peripheral [...] and hypocomplementemia and shows evidence of inflammation on urinalysis, frequently with eosinophiluria present.
Answer
eosinophilia


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Acute kidney injury is a common result of cholesterol embolization, which causes peripheral eosinophilia and hypocomplementemia and shows evidence of inflammation on urinalysis, frequently with eosinophiluria present.

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Flashcard 1649480961292

Question
Acute kidney injury is a common result of cholesterol embolization, which causes peripheral eosinophilia and [...]complementemia and shows evidence of inflammation on urinalysis, frequently with eosinophiluria present.
Answer
hypo


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Acute kidney injury is a common result of cholesterol embolization, which causes peripheral eosinophilia and hypocomplementemia and shows evidence of inflammation on urinalysis, frequently with eosinophiluria present.

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Flashcard 1649482534156

Question
Acute kidney injury is a common result of cholesterol embolization, which causes peripheral eosinophilia and hypocomplementemia and shows evidence of inflammation on urinalysis, frequently with [...] present.
Answer
eosinophiluria


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Acute kidney injury is a common result of cholesterol embolization, which causes peripheral eosinophilia and hypocomplementemia and shows evidence of inflammation on urinalysis, frequently with eosinophiluria present.

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Embolization may also lead to digital ischemia or infarction (“blue toe” syndrome) due to digital arterial occlusion or central scotoma due to central retinal artery occlusion. Although not specific for cholesterol atheroembolism, livedo reticularis (areas of lace-like mottled and purplish skin over the legs and thighs) is commonly associated with this disorder.

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Flashcard 1649485679884

Question
Embolization may also lead to [...] (“blue toe” syndrome) due to digital arterial occlusion or central scotoma due to central retinal artery occlusion. Although not specific for cholesterol atheroembolism, livedo reticularis (areas of lace-like mottled and purplish skin over the legs and thighs) is commonly associated with this disorder.
Answer
digital ischemia or infarction


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Embolization may also lead to digital ischemia or infarction (“blue toe” syndrome) due to digital arterial occlusion or central scotoma due to central retinal artery occlusion. Although not specific for cholesterol atheroembolism, live

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Flashcard 1649487252748

Question
Embolization may also lead to digital ischemia or infarction (“blue toe” syndrome) due to digital arterial occlusion or central [...] due to central retinal artery occlusion. Although not specific for cholesterol atheroembolism, livedo reticularis (areas of lace-like mottled and purplish skin over the legs and thighs) is commonly associated with this disorder.
Answer
scotoma


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Embolization may also lead to digital ischemia or infarction (“blue toe” syndrome) due to digital arterial occlusion or central scotoma due to central retinal artery occlusion. Although not specific for cholesterol atheroembolism, livedo reticularis (areas of lace-like mottled and purplish skin over the legs and

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Flashcard 1649488825612

Question
Embolization may also lead to digital ischemia or infarction (“blue toe” syndrome) due to digital arterial occlusion or central scotoma due to central retinal artery occlusion. Although not specific for cholesterol atheroembolism, [...] (areas of lace-like mottled and purplish skin over the legs and thighs) is commonly associated with this disorder.
Answer
livedo reticularis


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lization may also lead to digital ischemia or infarction (“blue toe” syndrome) due to digital arterial occlusion or central scotoma due to central retinal artery occlusion. Although not specific for cholesterol atheroembolism, <span>livedo reticularis (areas of lace-like mottled and purplish skin over the legs and thighs) is commonly associated with this disorder.<span><body><html>

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Eosinophiluria was previously believed to diagnose AIN, but urine eosinophil determination has been shown to be neither sensitive nor specific in the diagnostic evaluation of AIN.

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Flashcard 1649491971340

Question
is esonophiluria sensetive for diagnosing AIN ?
Answer
Eosinophiluria was previously believed to diagnose AIN, but urine eosinophil determination has been shown to be neither sensitive nor specific in the diagnostic evaluation of AIN.


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Eosinophiluria was previously believed to diagnose AIN, but urine eosinophil determination has been shown to be neither sensitive nor specific in the diagnostic evaluation of AIN.

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thiazide diuretic or a calcium channel blocker alone or in combination as initial therapy for black patients with hypertension.

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Flashcard 1649498000652

Question
thiazide diuretic or a calcium channel blocker alone or in combination as initial therapy for [...] patients with hypertension.
Answer
black


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thiazide diuretic or a calcium channel blocker alone or in combination as initial therapy for black patients with hypertension.

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simvastatin) that undergoes significant metabolism via the cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) pathway; lovastatin and, to a lesser extent, amlodipine are also metabolized through this pathway. Several calcium channel blockers inhibit or are metabolized through the CYP3A4 pathway and can increase the risk of statin myopathy

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Flashcard 1649501146380

Question
can u use statin with calcium channel blockers ?
Answer
simvastatin) that undergoes significant metabolism via the cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) pathway; lovastatin and, to a lesser extent, amlodipine are also metabolized through this pathway. Several calcium channel blockers inhibit or are metabolized through the CYP3A4 pathway and can increase the risk of statin myopathy


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simvastatin) that undergoes significant metabolism via the cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) pathway; lovastatin and, to a lesser extent, amlodipine are also metabolized through this pathway. Several calcium channel blockers inhibit or are metabolized through the CYP3A4 pathway and can increase the risk of statin myopathy

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Empiric therapy with sodium bicarbonate, fomepizole, and hemodialysis is indicated for patients with suspected ethylene glycol intoxication.

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Flashcard 1649505340684

Question
Empiric therapy with [...] is indicated for patients with suspected ethylene glycol intoxication.
Answer
sodium bicarbonate, fomepizole, and hemodialysis


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Empiric therapy with sodium bicarbonate, fomepizole, and hemodialysis is indicated for patients with suspected ethylene glycol intoxication.

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Intravenous ethanol was traditionally used as a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase; it is effective because this enzyme has greater affinity for ethanol than for ethylene glycol or methanol. However, fomepizole has been found to be a superior therapy to ethanol, is easier to administer, and has fewer side effects. Although ethanol is a reasonable second-line therapy, there is no benefit to coadministration of fomepizole and ethanol.

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Flashcard 1649509272844

Question
Intravenous ethanol was traditionally used as a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase; it is effective because this enzyme has greater affinity for ethanol than for ethylene glycol or methanol. However, [...] has been found to be a superior therapy to ethanol, is easier to administer, and has fewer side effects. Although ethanol is a reasonable second-line therapy, there is no benefit to coadministration of fomepizole and ethanol.
Answer
fomepizole


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>Intravenous ethanol was traditionally used as a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase; it is effective because this enzyme has greater affinity for ethanol than for ethylene glycol or methanol. However, fomepizole has been found to be a superior therapy to ethanol, is easier to administer, and has fewer side effects. Although ethanol is a reasonable second-line therapy, there is no be

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Flashcard 1649510845708

Question
Intravenous ethanol was traditionally used as a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase; it is effective because this enzyme has greater affinity for ethanol than for ethylene glycol or methanol. However, fomepizole has been found to be a superior therapy to ethanol, is easier to administer, and has fewer side effects. Although ethanol is a reasonable second-line therapy, there is [...] to coadministration of fomepizole and ethanol.
Answer
no benefit


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an for ethylene glycol or methanol. However, fomepizole has been found to be a superior therapy to ethanol, is easier to administer, and has fewer side effects. Although ethanol is a reasonable second-line therapy, there is <span>no benefit to coadministration of fomepizole and ethanol. <span><body><html>

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Patients with chronic kidney disease and normal calcium and phosphorus levels should be treated with active vitamin D analogues to reduce elevated parathyroid hormone levels and prevent renal osteodystrophy

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Flashcard 1649514515724

Question
Patients with chronic kidney disease and normal calcium and phosphorus levels should be treated with [...] analogues to reduce elevated parathyroid hormone levels and prevent renal osteodystrophy
Answer
active vitamin D


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Patients with chronic kidney disease and normal calcium and phosphorus levels should be treated with active vitamin D analogues to reduce elevated parathyroid hormone levels and prevent renal osteodystrophy

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Vitamin D analogues should be discontinued in the setting of hypercalcemia or hyperphosphatemia.

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Flashcard 1649517923596

Question
Vitamin D analogues should be discontinued in the setting of [...]calcemia or hyperphosphatemia.
Answer
hyper


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Vitamin D analogues should be discontinued in the setting of hypercalcemia or hyperphosphatemia.

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Flashcard 1649519496460

Question
Vitamin D analogues should be discontinued in the setting of hypercalcemia or [...]phosphatemia.
Answer
hyper


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Vitamin D analogues should be discontinued in the setting of hypercalcemia or hyperphosphatemia.

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Current Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) guidelines do not recommend the routine use of dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans in patients with CKD because DEXA has poor predictive value for distinguishing histologic subtypes of bone disease in patients with CKD.

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Flashcard 1649523166476

Question
Current Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) guidelines [...] recommend the routine use of dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans in patients with CKD because DEXA has poor predictive value for distinguishing histologic subtypes of bone disease in patients with CKD.
Answer
do not


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Current Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) guidelines do not recommend the routine use of dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans in patients with CKD because DEXA has poor predictive value for distinguishing histologic subtypes of bone d

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Flashcard 1649524739340

Question
Current Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) guidelines do not recommend the routine use of dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans in patients with CKD because DEXA has poor predictive value for distinguishing [...] subtypes of bone disease in patients with CKD.
Answer
histologic


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span>Current Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) guidelines do not recommend the routine use of dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans in patients with CKD because DEXA has poor predictive value for distinguishing histologic subtypes of bone disease in patients with CKD.<span><body><html>

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Pseudohyponatremia is caused by a laboratory error in the measurement of serum sodium due to the presence in the serum of elevated serum lipid levels or abnormal paraproteins such as myeloma proteins. The most likely diagnosis is pseudohyponatremia. Plasma osmolality can be measured using the following equation: Plasma Osmolality (mOsm/kg H 2 O) = 2 × Serum Sodium (mEq/L) + Plasma Glucose (mg/dL)/18 + Blood Urea Nitrogen (mg/dL)/2.8

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Flashcard 1649528409356

Question
Pseudohyponatremia is caused by a laboratory error in the measurement of serum sodium due to the presence in the serum of elevated serum lipid levels or abnormal paraproteins such as myeloma proteins. The most likely diagnosis is pseudohyponatremia. Plasma osmolality can be measured using the following equation: [...]
Answer
Plasma Osmolality (mOsm/kg H 2 O) = 2 × Serum Sodium (mEq/L) + Plasma Glucose (mg/dL)/18 + Blood Urea Nitrogen (mg/dL)/2.8


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rum sodium due to the presence in the serum of elevated serum lipid levels or abnormal paraproteins such as myeloma proteins. The most likely diagnosis is pseudohyponatremia. Plasma osmolality can be measured using the following equation: <span>Plasma Osmolality (mOsm/kg H 2 O) = 2 × Serum Sodium (mEq/L) + Plasma Glucose (mg/dL)/18 + Blood Urea Nitrogen (mg/dL)/2.8 <span><body><html>

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Patients with adrenal insufficiency may also have hyponatremia, caused by increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion in response to hypovolemia from urine salt wasting. However, these patients demonstrate a decrease in plasma osmolality rather than a normal plasma osmolality

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Flashcard 1649536273676

Question
Patients with adrenal insufficiency may also have hyponatremia, caused by increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion in response to hypovolemia from urine salt wasting. However, these patients demonstrate a [...] rather than a normal plasma osmolality
Answer
decrease in plasma osmolality


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ead>Patients with adrenal insufficiency may also have hyponatremia, caused by increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion in response to hypovolemia from urine salt wasting. However, these patients demonstrate a decrease in plasma osmolality rather than a normal plasma osmolality<html>

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Psychogenic polydipsia, in which patients ingest massive amounts of water, is characterized by hyponatremia with decreased plasma osmolality and decreased urine osmolality to less than the plasma osmolality, indicating maximum suppression of ADH with maximal urine dilution.

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Flashcard 1649539419404

Question
Psychogenic polydipsia, in which patients ingest massive amounts of water, is characterized by hyponatremia with [...] to less than the plasma osmolality, indicating maximum suppression of ADH with maximal urine dilution.
Answer
decreased plasma osmolality and decreased urine osmolality


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Psychogenic polydipsia, in which patients ingest massive amounts of water, is characterized by hyponatremia with decreased plasma osmolality and decreased urine osmolality to less than the plasma osmolality, indicating maximum suppression of ADH with maximal urine dilution.

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Patients with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion have hyponatremia with decreased plasma osmolality

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Flashcard 1649542827276

Question
Patients with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion have hyponatremia with [...]
Answer
decreased plasma osmolality


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Patients with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion have hyponatremia with decreased plasma osmolality

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Glucocorticoids are recommended as first-line therapy in the treatment of minimal change glomerulopathy unless there are contraindications.

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Flashcard 1649546235148

Question
[...] are recommended as first-line therapy in the treatment of minimal change glomerulopathy unless there are contraindications.
Answer
Glucocorticoids


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Glucocorticoids are recommended as first-line therapy in the treatment of minimal change glomerulopathy unless there are contraindications.

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The abrupt onset of the full nephrotic syndrome, a history of kidney disease in childhood that remitted, negative serologic tests, and a kidney biopsy showing normal light microscopic findings and negative immunofluorescence are diagnostic of MCG. Electron microscopy is confirmatory and usually demonstrates the extensive effacement of the podocyte foot processes

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Flashcard 1649549643020

Question
diagnosis of minimal change MCG ?
Answer
The abrupt onset of the full nephrotic syndrome, a history of kidney disease in childhood that remitted, negative serologic tests, and a kidney biopsy showing normal light microscopic findings and negative immunofluorescence are diagnostic of MCG. Electron microscopy is confirmatory and usually demonstrates the extensive effacement of the podocyte foot processes


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The abrupt onset of the full nephrotic syndrome, a history of kidney disease in childhood that remitted, negative serologic tests, and a kidney biopsy showing normal light microscopic findings and negative immunofluorescence are diagnostic of MCG. Electron microscopy is confirmatory and usually demonstrates the extensive effacement of the podocyte foot processes

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Glucocorticoids such as prednisone are recommended as first-line therapy unless there are contraindications. More than 80% of patients respond within 16 weeks of treatment. Alternative first-line therapy for minimal change glomerulopathy patients with contraindications to glucocorticoids (for example, obesity, impaired glucose tolerance or diabetes mellitus, or psychiatric conditions) includes calcineurin inhibitors such as cyclosporine.

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Flashcard 1649554885900

Question
Glucocorticoids such as prednisone are recommended as first-line therapy unless there are contraindications. More than 80% of patients respond within [...] weeks of treatment. Alternative first-line therapy for minimal change glomerulopathy patients with contraindications to glucocorticoids (for example, obesity, impaired glucose tolerance or diabetes mellitus, or psychiatric conditions) includes calcineurin inhibitors such as cyclosporine.
Answer
16


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Glucocorticoids such as prednisone are recommended as first-line therapy unless there are contraindications. More than 80% of patients respond within 16 weeks of treatment. Alternative first-line therapy for minimal change glomerulopathy patients with contraindications to glucocorticoids (for example, obesity, impaired glucose toleranc

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Flashcard 1649556458764

Question
Glucocorticoids such as prednisone are recommended as first-line therapy unless there are contraindications. More than 80% of patients respond within 16 weeks of treatment. Alternative first-line therapy for minimal change glomerulopathy patients with contraindications to glucocorticoids (for example, obesity, impaired glucose tolerance or diabetes mellitus, or psychiatric conditions) includes calcineurin inhibitors such as [...]
Answer
cyclosporine.


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irst-line therapy for minimal change glomerulopathy patients with contraindications to glucocorticoids (for example, obesity, impaired glucose tolerance or diabetes mellitus, or psychiatric conditions) includes calcineurin inhibitors such as <span>cyclosporine.<span><body><html>

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Alkylating agents such as cyclophosphamide are reserved for frequently relapsing or glucocorticoid-dependent patients with MCG.

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Flashcard 1649559604492

Question
Alkylating agents such as cyclophosphamide are reserved for [...] patients with MCG.
Answer
frequently relapsing or glucocorticoid-dependent


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Alkylating agents such as cyclophosphamide are reserved for frequently relapsing or glucocorticoid-dependent patients with MCG.

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ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril or angiotensin receptor blockers (typically used to inhibit the progression of chronic kidney disease) are typically not indicated to treat MCG because the duration of disease is short with glucocorticoid therapy, and patients are not hypertensive.

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Flashcard 1649563012364

Question
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril or angiotensin receptor blockers (typically used to inhibit the progression of chronic kidney disease) are typically [...] to treat MCG because the duration of disease is short with glucocorticoid therapy, and patients are not hypertensive.
Answer
not indicated


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ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril or angiotensin receptor blockers (typically used to inhibit the progression of chronic kidney disease) are typically not indicated to treat MCG because the duration of disease is short with glucocorticoid therapy, and patients are not hypertensive.

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Hypokalemic periodic paralysis secondary to thyrotoxicosis is characterized by generalized flaccid muscle weakness from a sudden intracellular potassium shift precipitated by strenuous exercise or a high carbohydrate meal.

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Flashcard 1649566944524

Question
Hypokalemic periodic paralysis secondary to thyrotoxicosis is characterized by generalized flaccid muscle weakness from a sudden intracellular potassium shift precipitated by [...] or a high carbohydrate meal.
Answer
strenuous exercise


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Hypokalemic periodic paralysis secondary to thyrotoxicosis is characterized by generalized flaccid muscle weakness from a sudden intracellular potassium shift precipitated by strenuous exercise or a high carbohydrate meal.

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Flashcard 1649568517388

Question
Hypokalemic periodic paralysis secondary to thyrotoxicosis is characterized by generalized flaccid muscle weakness from a sudden intracellular potassium shift precipitated by strenuous exercise or a high [...]
Answer
carbohydrate meal.


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html>Hypokalemic periodic paralysis secondary to thyrotoxicosis is characterized by generalized flaccid muscle weakness from a sudden intracellular potassium shift precipitated by strenuous exercise or a high carbohydrate meal. <html>

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Bartter syndrome represents a group of autosomal recessive renal tubular disorders characterized by metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and normal to low blood pressure with mild volume depletion.

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Flashcard 1649572449548

Question
Bartter syndrome represents a group of autosomal recessive renal tubular disorders characterized by metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and [...] blood pressure with mild volume depletion.
Answer
normal to low


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Bartter syndrome represents a group of autosomal recessive renal tubular disorders characterized by metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and normal to low blood pressure with mild volume depletion.

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Flashcard 1649574022412

Question
Bartter syndrome represents a group of autosomal recessive renal tubular disorders characterized by metabolic [...], hypokalemia, and normal to low blood pressure with mild volume depletion.
Answer
alkalosis


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Bartter syndrome represents a group of autosomal recessive renal tubular disorders characterized by metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and normal to low blood pressure with mild volume depletion.

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Flashcard 1649575595276

Question
Bartter syndrome represents a group of autosomal recessive renal tubular disorders characterized by metabolic alkalosis, [...]kalemia, and normal to low blood pressure with mild volume depletion.
Answer
hypo


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Bartter syndrome represents a group of autosomal recessive renal tubular disorders characterized by metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and normal to low blood pressure with mild volume depletion.

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An inadequate response to water restriction (urine osmolality does not rise despite rising plasma osmolality) suggests either central or nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

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Flashcard 1649579265292

Question
An inadequate response to water restriction (urine osmolality does not rise despite rising plasma osmolality) suggests either [...].
Answer
central or nephrogenic diabetes insipidus


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An inadequate response to water restriction (urine osmolality does not rise despite rising plasma osmolality) suggests either central or nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

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DI is caused by either an absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion (central DI) or renal resistance to ADH (nephrogenic DI), which results in an inability to appropriately concentrate the urine in response to an increase in plasma osmolality.

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Flashcard 1649582411020

Question
DI is caused by either an [...] secretion (central DI) or renal resistance to ADH (nephrogenic DI), which results in an inability to appropriately concentrate the urine in response to an increase in plasma osmolality.
Answer
absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)


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DI is caused by either an absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion (central DI) or renal resistance to ADH (nephrogenic DI), which results in an inability to appropriately concentrate the urine in response to an increase in plasma osmolali

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Flashcard 1649583983884

Question
DI is caused by either an absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion (central DI) or [...] (nephrogenic DI), which results in an inability to appropriately concentrate the urine in response to an increase in plasma osmolality.
Answer
renal resistance to ADH


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DI is caused by either an absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion (central DI) or renal resistance to ADH (nephrogenic DI), which results in an inability to appropriately concentrate the urine in response to an increase in plasma osmolality.

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The most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next is a water restriction test to evaluate for diabetes insipidus (DI)

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Flashcard 1649587391756

Question
The most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next is a [...] test to evaluate for diabetes insipidus (DI)
Answer
water restriction


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The most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next is a water restriction test to evaluate for diabetes insipidus (DI)

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Lithium is one of the most common causes of nephrogenic DI in adults.

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Flashcard 1649590537484

Question
[...] is one of the most common causes of nephrogenic DI in adults.
Answer
Lithium


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Lithium is one of the most common causes of nephrogenic DI in adults.

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because increased thirst stimulates oral consumption of fluids, which maintains the serum sodium near the upper normal range as long as access to fluids is not impaired. In a water restriction (or deprivation) test, urine volume, urine osmolality, and plasma sodium concentration are measured hourly after complete water restriction. A normal urine osmolality response (usually defined as an increase in urine osmolality above 600 mOsm/kg H 2 O) indicates that ADH release and corresponding renal response to ADH are intact. A failure of the urine osmolality to rise despite rising plasma osmolality suggests either central or nephrogenic DI. Desmopressin is then administered. Patients with central DI will respond with increased urine osmolality, whereas in patients with nephrogenic DI (as is likely in this patient), desmopressin will not result in increased urine osmolality after water restriction, confirming the diagnosis.

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Flashcard 1649593945356

Question
explain water restriction ( deprivation ) test ?
Answer
because increased thirst stimulates oral consumption of fluids, which maintains the serum sodium near the upper normal range as long as access to fluids is not impaired. In a water restriction (or deprivation) test, urine volume, urine osmolality, and plasma sodium concentration are measured hourly after complete water restriction. A normal urine osmolality response (usually defined as an increase in urine osmolality above 600 mOsm/kg H 2 O) indicates that ADH release and corresponding renal response to ADH are intact. A failure of the urine osmolality to rise despite rising plasma osmolality suggests either central or nephrogenic DI. Desmopressin is then administered. Patients with central DI will respond with increased urine osmolality, whereas in patients with nephrogenic DI (as is likely in this patient), desmopressin will not result in increased urine osmolality after water restriction, confirming the diagnosis.


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because increased thirst stimulates oral consumption of fluids, which maintains the serum sodium near the upper normal range as long as access to fluids is not impaired. In a water restriction (or deprivation) test, urine volume, urine osmolality, and plasma sodium concentration are measured hourly after complete water restriction. A normal urine osmolality response (usually defined as an increase in urine osmolality above 600 mOsm/kg H 2 O) indicates that ADH release and corresponding renal response to ADH are intact. A failure of the urine osmolality to rise despite rising plasma osmolality suggests either central or nephrogenic DI. Desmopressin is then administered. Patients with central DI will respond with increased urine osmolality, whereas in patients with nephrogenic DI (as is likely in this patient), desmopressin will not result in increased urine osmolality after water restriction, confirming the diagnosis.

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The cosyntropin stimulation test is used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency, which is manifested by hyponatremia, decreased plasma osmolality, and increased urine osmolality

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Flashcard 1649597877516

Question
The cosyntropin stimulation test is used to diagnose [...], which is manifested by hyponatremia, decreased plasma osmolality, and increased urine osmolality
Answer
adrenal insufficiency


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The cosyntropin stimulation test is used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency, which is manifested by hyponatremia, decreased plasma osmolality, and increased urine osmolality

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A urine sodium measurement is useful in the evaluation of patients with suspected urinary salt wasting, such as those with adrenal insufficiency.

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Flashcard 1649601023244

Question
A urine sodium measurement is useful in the evaluation of patients with suspected urinary salt wasting, such as those with [...].
Answer
adrenal insufficiency


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A urine sodium measurement is useful in the evaluation of patients with suspected urinary salt wasting, such as those with adrenal insufficiency.

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It must be emphasised that the mnemonic methods are not a general teaching method or a curricular approach. 2 The idea of mnemonic strategies is so specific that they are intended to be used to enhance the recall of the components of any lesson for which memory is needed.

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mnemonic strategies are not comprehension strategies, but only memory strategies/ methods.

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Oral alkali therapy ( NaHCO3 ) to maintain serum bicarbonate levels between 23 and 29 mEq/L (23-29 mmol/L) reduces the risk of progression of chronic kidney disease.

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Flashcard 1649621732620

Question
Oral alkali therapy ( NaHCO3 ) to maintain serum bicarbonate levels between [...] mmol/L) reduces the risk of progression of chronic kidney disease.
Answer
23 and 29 mEq/L (23-29


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Oral alkali therapy ( NaHCO3 ) to maintain serum bicarbonate levels between 23 and 29 mEq/L (23-29 mmol/L) reduces the risk of progression of chronic kidney disease.

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Mesalamine-induced interstitial nephritis is a well-described

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Flashcard 1649625926924

Question
Mesalamine-induced [...] is a well-described
Answer
interstitial nephritis


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Mesalamine-induced interstitial nephritis is a well-described

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Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of interstitial nephritis, which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild subnephrotic proteinuria also can be seen with interstitial nephritis

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Flashcard 1649629072652

Question
Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of [...], which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild subnephrotic proteinuria also can be seen with interstitial nephritis
Answer
interstitial nephritis


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Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of interstitial nephritis, which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild subnephrotic proteinuria also can be seen with interstitial nephr

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Flashcard 1649630645516

Question
Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of interstitial nephritis, which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild [...] also can be seen with interstitial nephritis
Answer
subnephrotic proteinuria


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Sterile pyuria and leukocyte casts are hallmarks of interstitial nephritis, which can present acutely or may progress indolently and present as chronic kidney disease of unclear duration. Mild subnephrotic proteinuria also can be seen with interstitial nephritis

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Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement

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Flashcard 1649633791244

Question
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with [...] and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement
Answer
hematuria


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Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associate

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Flashcard 1649635364108

Question
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and [...] and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement
Answer
erythrocyte casts


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Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying et

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Flashcard 1649636936972

Question
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is associated with hematuria and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as [...]
Answer
pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement


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ia and erythrocyte casts and variable proteinuria, usually with other clinical manifestations such as hypertension. In some cases, other systemic symptoms or clinical findings associated with an underlying etiology may be present, such as <span>pulmonary hemorrhage or upper and lower respiratory tract involvement<span><body><html>

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Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the 20th week of gestation, or persists longer than 12 weeks POST DELIVERY

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Flashcard 1649641393420

Question
Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the [...] week of gestation, or persists longer than 12 weeks POST DELIVERY
Answer
20th


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Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the 20th week of gestation, or persists longer than 12 weeks POST DELIVERY

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Flashcard 1649642966284

Question
Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the 20th week of gestation, or persists longer than [...] weeks POST DELIVERY
Answer
12


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Chronic hypertension is defined as systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg that existed before pregnancy, is present before the 20th week of gestation, or persists longer than 12 weeks POST DELIVERY

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The diagnosis of HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets) syndrome requires evidence of hemolysis and abnormal liver chemistry tests in addition to thrombocytopenia.

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Flashcard 1649646374156

Question
The diagnosis of HELLP (hemolysis, [...], and low platelets) syndrome requires evidence of hemolysis and abnormal liver chemistry tests in addition to thrombocytopenia.
Answer
elevated liver enzymes


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The diagnosis of HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets) syndrome requires evidence of hemolysis and abnormal liver chemistry tests in addition to thrombocytopenia.

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Elevated serum phosphorus levels, particularly exceeding 6.5 mg/dL (2.09 mmol/L), are closely associated with increased mortality.

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Flashcard 1649649782028

Question
Elevated serum phosphorus levels, particularly exceeding [...] mg/dL (2.09 mmol/L), are closely associated with increased mortality.
Answer
6.5


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Elevated serum phosphorus levels, particularly exceeding 6.5 mg/dL (2.09 mmol/L), are closely associated with increased mortality.

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Ferric citrate, another non-calcium– containing phosphorus binder, was recently approved for use in patients receiving dialysis but is not yet approved for patients with non-dialysis CKD.

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Flashcard 1649652927756

Question
[...], another non-calcium– containing phosphorus binder, was recently approved for use in patients receiving dialysis but is not yet approved for patients with non-dialysis CKD.
Answer
Ferric citrate


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Ferric citrate, another non-calcium– containing phosphorus binder, was recently approved for use in patients receiving dialysis but is not yet approved for patients with non-dialysis CKD. </s

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Iron deficiency is the most common cause of hyporesponsiveness to erythropoietin, and guidelines recommend intravenous rather than oral iron replacement among hemodialysis patients who require iron.

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Flashcard 1649657646348

Question
Iron deficiency is the most common cause of hyporesponsiveness to erythropoietin, and guidelines recommend [...] iron replacement among hemodialysis patients who require iron.
Answer
intravenous rather than oral


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Iron deficiency is the most common cause of hyporesponsiveness to erythropoietin, and guidelines recommend intravenous rather than oral iron replacement among hemodialysis patients who require iron.

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(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >30% and serum ferritin levels of >500 ng/mL (500 µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,

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Flashcard 1649660792076

Question
(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >[...] and serum ferritin levels of >500 ng/mL (500 µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,
Answer
30%


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(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >30% and serum ferritin levels of >500 ng/mL (500 µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,

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Flashcard 1649662364940

Question
(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >30% and serum ferritin levels of >[...] µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,
Answer
500 ng/mL (500


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(KDIGO) recommendations suggest maintaining transferrin saturation levels of >30% and serum ferritin levels of >500 ng/mL (500 µg/L). In hemodialysis patients,

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KDIGO guidelines suggest avoiding dosing erythropoietin to achieve a hemoglobin level >11.5 g/dL (115 g/L)

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Flashcard 1649666034956

Question
KDIGO guidelines suggest avoiding dosing erythropoietin to achieve a hemoglobin level >[...] g/L)
Answer
11.5 g/dL (115


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KDIGO guidelines suggest avoiding dosing erythropoietin to achieve a hemoglobin level >11.5 g/dL (115 g/L)

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Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) on the podocyte surface in up to 80% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.

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Flashcard 1649671277836

Question
Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) on the podocyte surface in up to [...]% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.
Answer
80


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Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) on the podocyte surface in up to 80% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.

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Flashcard 1649672850700

Question
Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the [...] on the podocyte surface in up to 80% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.
Answer
phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R)


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Primary membranous glomerulopathy MG is associated with the antibody to the phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) on the podocyte surface in up to 80% of patients, and the presence of the antibody supports this diagnosis.

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Secondary causes of membranous glomerulopathy MG include malignancies (solid organ cancers, especially lung, colon, and breast), autoimmune diseases (such as lupus or mixed connective tissue disease), infections (hepatitis B and C), and medications (penicillamine, gold, and NSAIDs). Evaluation for potential secondary causes should always be undertaken in patients with MG, especially those who are negative for PLA2R antibodies.

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Flashcard 1649677307148

Question
what are the secondary causes of membranous glomerulopathy ?
Answer
Secondary causes of membranous glomerulopathy MG include malignancies (solid organ cancers, especially lung, colon, and breast), autoimmune diseases (such as lupus or mixed connective tissue disease), infections (hepatitis B and C), and medications (penicillamine, gold, and NSAIDs). Evaluation for potential secondary causes should always be undertaken in patients with MG, especially those who are negative for PLA2R antibodies.


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Secondary causes of membranous glomerulopathy MG include malignancies (solid organ cancers, especially lung, colon, and breast), autoimmune diseases (such as lupus or mixed connective tissue disease), infections (hepatitis B and C), and medications (penicillamine, gold, and NSAIDs). Evaluation for potential secondary causes should always be undertaken in patients with MG, especially those who are negative for PLA2R antibodies.

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The Standards contain energy and water efficiency requirements (and indoor air quality requirements) for newly constructed buildings, additions to existing buildings, and alterations to existing buildings.

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Public Resources Code Sections 25402 subdivisions (a)-(b) and 25402.1 emphasize the importance of building design and construction flexibility by requiring the Energy Commission to establish performance standards, in the form of an “energy budget” in terms of the energy consumption per square foot of floor space. For this reason, the Standards include both a prescriptive option, allowing builders to comply by using methods known to be efficient, and a performance option, allowing builders complete freedom in their designs provided the building achieves the same overall efficiency as an equivalent building using the prescriptive option.

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The Standards are divided into three basic sets. First, there is a basic set of mandatory requirements that apply to all buildings. Second, there is a set of performance standards – the energy budgets – that vary by climate zone (of which there are 16 in California) and building type; thus the Standards are tailored to local conditions. Finally, the third set constitutes an alternative to the performance standards, which is a set of prescriptive packages that are basically a recipe or a checklist compliance approach.

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ACM means ALTERNATIVE CALCULATION METHOD are compliance software, or alternative component packages, or exceptional methods approved by the Commission under Section 10-109. ACMs are also referred to as Compliance Software.

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Niagara AX/4 – The Niagara Framework is a universal software infrastructure that allows organizations to easily build custom, Web-enabled applications for accessing, automating and controlling “smart” devices in real-time over the Internet.

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A JACE Can Increase Efficiency (and save money) | eSPACE
r not your system includes this device or one very similar (as there are various names by different suppliers for this component) To get started, let’s look at some terminology related to the building automation industry to set the table: <span>Niagara AX/4 – The Niagara Framework is a universal software infrastructure that allows organizations to easily build custom, Web-enabled applications for accessing, automating and controlling “smart” devices in real-time over the Internet. BACnet (Building Automation and Control networks) – A Data Communication Protocol for Building Automation and Control Networks. A data communication protocol is a set of rules govern




JACE (Java Application Control Engine) – In order to integrate diverse systems, a physical connection to a device’s network is required. A JACE is a mechanism/device that provides connectivity to systems (HVAC, electrical…even security in some instances) within a building via the Niagara framework. By connecting common network protocols such as LonWorks, BACnet, and Modbus, along with many proprietary networks a unified system without seams emerges.

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A JACE Can Increase Efficiency (and save money) | eSPACE
rol Networks. A data communication protocol is a set of rules governing the exchange of data over a computer network. The rules take the form of a written specification that spells out what is required to conform to the protocol.[imagelink] <span>JACE (Java Application Control Engine) – In order to integrate diverse systems, a physical connection to a device’s network is required. A JACE is a mechanism/device that provides connectivity to systems (HVAC, electrical…even security in some instances) within a building via the Niagara framework. By connecting common network protocols such as LonWorks, BACnet, and Modbus, along with many proprietary networks a unified system without seams emerges. Enough technical terms. Here is the long and short of the above. The building automation industry…including HVAC, electrical, IT, security, etc… has developed several means, method




#jace #tridium

There are three driving factors behind the adoption of Tridium:

  1. A large amount of third-party integration drivers
  2. A distributor model that provides open availability of the product
  3. A SDK that allows developers to customize their own integrations

Tridium is built on Niagara AX (or N4 as Tridium is calling the new platform) which is a proprietary framework.

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What is Tridium Part 1 - Building Automation Monthly
is and what Tridium isn’t. At the end of this article I will provide you some related articles and a chance to learn more about building automation. So what is Tridium? Tridium is the latest buzz word in the Building Automation Industry. <span>There are three driving factors behind the adoption of Tridium: A large amount of third-party integration drivers A distributor model that provides open availability of the product A SDK that allows developers to customize their own integrations Tridium is built on Niagara AX (or N4 as Tridium is calling the new platform) which is a proprietary framework. Tridium itself is the brand name for the product built upon the AX framework. A typical Tridium device is comprised of several open and proprietary protocols provided on a scalable pl




Total project costs (hard costs, soft costs and land) for the 52,000 square-foot Bullitt Center were $32.5 million.

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