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Discounted Cash Flow Applications
#analyst #has-images #notes #quantitative-methods-basic-concepts

Holding Period Return


When analyzing rates of return, our starting point is the total return, or holding period return (HPR). HPR measures the total return for holding an investment over a certain period of time, and can be calculated using the following formula:

  • Pt = price per share at the end of time period t
  • P(t-1) = price per share at the end of time period t-1, the time period immediately preceding time period t
  • Pt - Pt-1 = price appreciation of the investment
  • Dt = cash distributions received during time period t: for common stock, cash distribution is the dividend; for bonds, cash distribution is the coupon payment.

It has two important characteristics:

  • It has an element of time attached to it: monthly, quarterly or annual returns. HPR can be computed for any time period.
  • It has no currency unit attached to it; the result holds regardless of the currency in which prices are denominated.

Example

A stock is currently worth $60. If you purchased the stock exactly one year ago for $50 and received a $2 dividend over the course of the year, what is your holding period return?

Rt = ($60 - $50 + $2)/$50 = 0.24 or 24%

The return for time period t is the capital gain (or loss) plus distributions divided by the beginning-of-period price (dividend yield). Note that for common stocks the distribution is the dividend; for bonds, the distribution is the coupon payment.

The holding period return for any asset can be calculated for any time period (day, week, month, or year) simply by changing the interpretation of the time interval.

Return can be expressed in decimals (0.05), fractions (5/100), or as a percent (5%). These are all equivalent.

Learning Outcome Statements

c. calculate and interpret a holding period return (total return);

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Bond Equivalent Yield
#has-images #quantitative-methods-basic-concepts

Periodic bond yields for both straight and zero-coupon bonds are conventionally computed based on semi-annual periods, as U.S. bonds typically make two coupon payments per year. For example, a zero-coupon bond with a maturity of five years will mature in 10 6-month periods. The periodic yield for that bond, r, is indicated by the equation Price = Maturity value x (1 + r)-10. This yield is an internal rate of return with semi-annual compounding. How do we annualize it?

The convention is to double it and call the result the bond's yield to maturity. This method ignores the effect of compounding semi-annual YTM, and the YTM calculated in this way is called a bond-equivalent yield (BEY).

However, yields of a semi-annual-pay and an annual-pay bond cannot be compared directly without conversion. This conversion can be done in one of the two ways:

  • Convert the bond-equivalent yield of a semi-annual-pay bond to an annual-pay bond.

  • Convert the equivalent annual yield of an annual-pay bond to a bond-equivalent yield.

Example

  • A Eurobond pays coupon annually. It has an annual-pay YTM of 8%.
  • A U.S. corporate bond pays coupon semi-annually. It has a bond equivalent YTM of 7.8%.
  • Which bond is more attractive, if all other factors are equal?

Solution 1

  • Convert the U.S. corporate bond's bond equivalent yield to an annual-pay yield:
  • Annual-pay yield = [1 + 0.078/2]2 - 1 = 7.95% < 8%
  • The Eurobond is more attractive since it offers a higher annual-pay yield.

Solution 2

  • Convert the Eurobond's annual-pay yield to a bond equivalent yield (BEY):
  • BEY = 2 x [(1 + 0.08)0.5 - 1] = 7.85% > 7.8%
  • The Eurobond is more attractive since it offers a higher bond equivalent yield.

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#fixed #income
The legal obligation to make the contractual payments is assigned to the bond issuer. The issuer is identified in the indenture by its legal name

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Legal Identity of the Bond Issuer and its Legal Form
3.1.1. Legal Identity of the Bond Issuer and its Legal Form The legal obligation to make the contractual payments is assigned to the bond issuer. The issuer is identified in the indenture by its legal name. For a sovereign bond, the legal issuer is usually the office responsible for managing the national budget, such as HM Treasury (Her Majesty’s Treasury) in the United Kingdom. The legal




Subject 1. Equity securities in global financial markets
#equity-analisis
Equity securities play a fundamental role in investment analysis and portfolio management. The importance of this asset class continues to grow on a global scale because of the need for equity capital in developed and emerging markets, technological innovation, and the growing sophistication of electronic information exchange. Given their absolute return potential and ability to impact the risk and return characteristics of portfolios, equity securities are of importance to both individual and institutional investors.

Global equity securities have offered an average of annualized real return of 5% based on historical data, while the average annual real return is about just 1% or 2% for government bills and bonds. However, equity securities are more volatile than government bills and bonds. They represent a key asset class for global investors because of their unique return and risk characteristics.

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Subject 2. Types and characteristics of equity securities
#equity-analisis
Common Shares

Common shares represent ownership shares in a corporation.

The two most important characteristics of common shares are:

  • Residual claim means the shareholders are the last in line of all those who have a claim on the assets or income of the corporation.
  • Limited liability means that the greatest amount shareholders can lose in event of failure of the corporation is the original investment.

Each share of voting common stock entitles its owner to one vote on any matters of corporate governance that are put to a vote at the corporation's annual meeting. Shareholders who do not attend the annual meeting can vote by proxy, empowering another party to vote in their name.

Statutory voting, also known as straight voting, is a procedure of voting for a company's directors in which each shareholders is entitled to one vote per share. For example, if you owned 100 shares, you would have 100 votes.

Cumulative voting is another procedure of voting for a company's directors. Each shareholder is entitled one vote per share times the number of directors to be elected. For example, if you owned 100 shares and there were three directors to be elected, you would have 300 votes. This is advantageous for individual investors because they can apply all of their votes toward one person.

Common shares can be callable or putable. Callable common shares give the issuer the right to buy back the shares from shareholders at a pre-determined price. Putable common shares give shareholders the right to sell the shares back to the issuer at a pre-determined price.

Preference Shares

A preferred share, also called preference share, has features similar to both equities and bonds.

  • Like a bond, it promises to pay to its holder fixed dividends each year. In this sense it is similar to an infinite-maturity bond, that is, a perpetuity. It also resembles a bond in that it does not convey voting power regarding the management of the firm.
  • A preferred share is an equity investment, however, in the sense that failure to pay the dividend does not precipitate corporate bankruptcy. It has priority over a common share in the payment of dividends and upon liquidation.

Preferred dividends can be cumulative; that is, unpaid dividends cumulate and must be paid full before any dividends may be paid to common shareholders. All passed dividends on a cumulative stock are dividends in arrears. A stock that doesn't have this feature is known as a noncumulative or straight preferred stock and any dividends passed are lost forever if not declared. The implication is that the dividend payments are at the company's discretion and are thus similar to payments made to common shareholders.

Participating preferred shares offer the holders the opportunity to receive extra dividends if the company achieves some predetermined financial goals. The investors who purchased these shares receive their regular dividends regardless of how well or how poorly the company performs, assuming the company does well enough to make the annual dividend payments. If the company achieves predetermined sales, earnings or profitability goals, the investors receive additional dividends. Most preferred shares are non-participating.

Convertible preferred shares give the assurance of a fixed rate of return plus the opportunity for capital appreciation. The fixed-income component offers a steady income stream and some protection of capital. The option to convert these preferred shares into common shares gives the investor the opportunity to gain from a rise in share price.

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#equity-analisis
Common Shares

Common shares represent ownership shares in a corporation.

The two most important characteristics of common shares are:

  • Residual claim means the shareholders are the last in line of all those who have a claim on the assets or income of the corporation.
  • Limited liability means that the greatest amount shareholders can lose in event of failure of the corporation is the original investment.

Each share of voting common stock entitles its owner to one vote on any matters of corporate governance that are put to a vote at the corporation's annual meeting. Shareholders who do not attend the annual meeting can vote by proxy, empowering another party to vote in their name.

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Subject 2. Types and characteristics of equity securities
Common Shares Common shares represent ownership shares in a corporation. The two most important characteristics of common shares are: Residual claim means the shareholders are the last in line of all those who have a claim on the assets or income of the corporation. Limited liability means that the greatest amount shareholders can lose in event of failure of the corporation is the original investment. Each share of voting common stock entitles its owner to one vote on any matters of corporate governance that are put to a vote at the corporation's annual meeting. Shareholders who do not attend the annual meeting can vote by proxy, empowering another party to vote in their name. Statutory voting, also known as straight voting, is a procedure of voting for a company's directors in which each shareholders is entitled to one vote per share. For example, if you owne




#equity-analisis
Statutory voting, also known as straight voting, is a procedure of voting for a company's directors in which each shareholders is entitled to one vote per share. For example, if you owned 100 shares, you would have 100 votes.

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Subject 2. Types and characteristics of equity securities
e vote on any matters of corporate governance that are put to a vote at the corporation's annual meeting. Shareholders who do not attend the annual meeting can vote by proxy, empowering another party to vote in their name. <span>Statutory voting, also known as straight voting, is a procedure of voting for a company's directors in which each shareholders is entitled to one vote per share. For example, if you owned 100 shares, you would have 100 votes. Cumulative voting is another procedure of voting for a company's directors. Each shareholder is entitled one vote per share times the number of directors to be elected. For example, if y




#fixed #income
Affirmative covenants enumerate what issuers are required to do, whereas negative covenants specify what issuers are prohibited from doing.

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Covenants
3.1.5. Covenants Bond covenants are legally enforceable rules that borrowers and lenders agree on at the time of a new bond issue. An indenture will frequently include affirmative (or positive) and negative covenants. Affirmative covenants enumerate what issuers are required to do, whereas negative covenants specify what issuers are prohibited from doing. <body><html>




#derivatives
risk management is the process by which an organization or individual defines the level of risk it wishes to take, measures the level of risk it is taking, and adjusts the latter to equal the former. Risk management never offers a guarantee that large losses will not occur, and it does not eliminate the possibility of total failure.

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Open it
es abound about how poorly these companies managed risk. Such stories are great attention grabbers and a real boon for the media, but they often miss the point that risk management does not guarantee that large losses will not occur. Rather, <span>risk management is the process by which an organization or individual defines the level of risk it wishes to take, measures the level of risk it is taking, and adjusts the latter to equal the former. Risk management never offers a guarantee that large losses will not occur, and it does not eliminate the possibility of total failure. To do so would typically require that the amount of risk taken be so small that the organization would be effectively constrained from pursuing its primary objectives. Risk taking is inh




#fra-introduction
Ideally, for an established company, the analyst would like to see that the primary source of cash flow is from operating activities as opposed to investing or financing activities

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Parent (intermediate) annotation

Open it
t necessarily when cash is received, and expenses are reported when incurred, not necessarily when paid. The cash flow statement presents another aspect of performance: the ability of a company to generate cash flow from running its business. <span>Ideally, for an established company, the analyst would like to see that the primary source of cash flow is from operating activities as opposed to investing or financing activities.<span><body><html>

Original toplevel document

Open it
method of reporting cash flows from operating activities discloses major classes of gross cash receipts and gross cash payments. Examples of such classes are cash received from customers and cash paid to suppliers and employees. <span>The indirect method emphasizes the different perspectives of the income statement and cash flow statement. On the income statement, income is reported when earned, not necessarily when cash is received, and expenses are reported when incurred, not necessarily when paid. The cash flow statement presents another aspect of performance: the ability of a company to generate cash flow from running its business. Ideally, for an established company, the analyst would like to see that the primary source of cash flow is from operating activities as opposed to investing or financing activities. The sum of the net cash flows from operating, investing, and financing activities and the effect of exchange rates on cash equals the net change in cash during the fiscal year. For Volks




Subject 1. The functions of the financial system
#analyst-notes #market-organization-and-structure
Helping People Achieve Their Purposes in Using the Financial System

The financial system helps people:

  • Save money for the future. Saving here means buying notes, CDs, bonds, stocks, mutual funds or real estate assets.
  • Borrow money for current use. This is the opposite of the first purpose above. Individuals, companies and governments may need money to spend now (consumption, investment, paying taxes, expenses etc).
  • Raise equity capital. Companies can sell ownership rights to raise equity capital they need.
  • Manage risks. People can use financial contracts to offset risks.
  • Exchange assets for immediate (in spot markets) and future (in the futures markets) deliveries.
  • Trade on information. Information-motivated traders can (or they believe they can) use the financial system to earn a return in excess of the fair rate of return because they have information whose value declines over time (as it becomes recognized by other market participants).

Determining Rate of Return

The price in the financial system is the rate of return. It is the interaction of the broad forces of supply and demand.

There are many different prices (rates of return) as there are many different types of assets in the financial system. For example, equities have higher rates of return than T-bills. All of these rates are determined in the financial system.

Prices rapidly adjust to new information. The prevailing price is fair because it reflects all available information regarding the asset.

Capital Allocation Efficiency

In the financial markets investors distinguish good firms from bad firms. This lets the market channel capital to good firms and away from problem firms.

Timely and accurate information is available on the price and volume of past transactions and the prevailing bid-price and ask-price. Such information facilitates the rapid flow of capital to its highest value uses.

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Subject 2. Assets and contracts
#analyst-notes #market-organization-and-structure

There are many different ways one can use to classify assets and contracts. The most common way is to classify them into one of these categories: debts, equities, currencies, derivatives (contracts), commodities, and real estate. In this subject we briefly describe the numerous assets and contracts available and provide a brief overview of each.

Fixed-Income Investments

They have a contractually mandated payment schedule. Their investment contacts promise specific payments at predetermined times. Investors who acquire fixed-income securities are really lenders to the issuers. Specifically, you lend some amount of money, the principal, to the borrower. In return, the borrower promises to make periodic interest payments and to pay back the principal at the maturity of the loan.

Bonds, notes, bills, CDs, commercial paper, repo agreements, loan agreements, and mortgages are examples of fixed-income investments.

Preferred stock is classified as a fixed-income security because its yearly payment is stipulated as either a coupon (e.g. 5% of the face value) or a stated dollar amount. Although preferred dividends are not legally binding as are the interest payments on a bond, they are considered practically binding because of the credit implications of a missed dividend.

Equities

Equities differ from fixed-income securities because their returns are not contractual. They represent residual ownership in companies after all claims - including any fixed-income liabilities of the company - have been satisfied.

Common stocks represent ownership of a firm. Owners of the common stock of a firm share in the company's successes and problems.

A warrant allows the holder to purchase the firm's common stock from the firm at a specified price for a given time period. It provides the firm with future common stock capital when the holder exercises the warrant.

Pooled Investments

Rather than directly buying an individual stock or bond, you may choose to acquire these investments indirectly by buying shares in an investment company that owns a portfolio of individual stocks, bonds, or a combination of the two. People invest in pooled investment vehicles to benefit from the investment management services of their managers. Examples of these pooled investments include money market funds, bond funds, stock funds, balanced funds, etc.

Currencies

The currency market is a worldwide decentralized over-the-counter financial market for the trading of currencies. The market participants include commercial banks, central banks, retail brokers, etc.

Contracts

Financial contracts include the following:

  • Forward contracts allow buyers and sellers to arrange for future sales at pre-determined prices. It is a commitment to buy or sell.
  • Futures contracts are standardized forward contracts guaranteed by clearing house. They are traded on a futures exchange.
  • Swap contracts are derivative securities in the form of agreements between two counterparties to exchange cash flows over a period of time, depending on the values of specified market variables.
  • Options are rights to or sell an underlying instrument at a specified price within a designated time period.

Commodities

Commodities include agricultural products, energy, metals, etc. Commodities complement the investment opportunities offered by shares of corporation that extensively use these raw materials in their production processes.

Real Assets

Real assets include tangible assets such as real estate, airplanes, machinery, or lumber stands. They are often illiquid and have high transaction costs compared to stocks and bonds.

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Subject 3. Financial intermediaries
#analyst-notes #market-organization-and-structure
Financial intermediaries are institutions that function as the line of communication between buyers and sellers in the financial system. Functioning as a middleman, a financial intermediary seeks to match investors who have specific financial goals with investments opportunities that can aid in the achievement of those goals.

Brokers, Exchanges, and Alternative Trading Systems

A broker executes trade orders on behalf of a customer. A block broker helps fill larger orders.

Investment banks help their corporate clients raise capital by issuing shares or bonds. They also help their corporate identify and acquire other companies.

An exchange is like a market where stocks, bonds, options and futures, and commodities are traded. Most exchanges offer different categories of membership and regulate their members' behavior when trading on the exchange. They also regulate the issuers that list their securities on the exchange.

Alternative trading systems (ATSs) are non-exchange trading venues that bring together buyers and sellers of securities. ATSs do not exercise regulatory authority over their subscribers and do not discipline subscribers other than exclusion from trading. For example, an electronic communication network (ECN) connects major brokerages and individual traders so that they can trade directly between themselves without having to go through a middleman. Dark pools are ATSs that don't display the orders which are usually very large.

Dealers

A dealer trades for its own accounts. Individual dealers provide liquidity to investors by trading the securities for themselves. They buy or sell with one client and hope to do the offsetting transaction later with another client.

In practice, most brokerages are in fact broker-dealer firms. That is, as a broker, the brokerage conducts transactions on behalf of clients, and, as a dealer, it trades on its own account.

In the U.S. most broker-dealers must register with the SEC.

Securitizers

Securitization is a structured finance process that distributes risk by aggregating assets in a pool (often by selling assets to a special purpose entity), then issuing new securities backed by the assets and their cash flows. The securities are sold to investors who share the risk and reward from those assets.

In most securitized investment structures, the investors' rights to receive cash flows are divided into "tranches": senior tranche investors lower their risk of default in return for lower interest payments, while junior tranche investors assume a higher risk in return for higher interest.

Financial intermediaries securitize many assets such as mortgages, car loans,, credit card receivables, and banks loans.

Depository Institutions and Other Financial Corporations

They accept monetary deposits from savers and investors, and then lend these deposits to borrowers. Both the depositors and borrowers benefit from the services they provide. Depository institutions also provide other services such as transaction services, credit services, etc.

Insurance Companies

Insurance involves pooling funds from many insured entities (e.g. policyholders) in order to pay for relatively uncommon but severely devastating losses which can occur to these entities. The insured entities are therefore protected from risk for a fee. In other words, risks are transferred from these entities to the insurance company. The insurance company connects customers who want to insure risks with investors who are willing to bear those risks.

Insurance companies make money in two ways:

  • Through underwriting, the process by which insurers select the risks to insure and decide how much in premiums to charge for accepting those risks;
  • By investing the premiums they c
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Subject 4. Positions
#analyst-notes #market-organization-and-structure
A long position is owning or holding securities or contracts. For example, an owner of 100 shares of Apple common stock is said to be "long the stock". Being long indicates an expectation of rising share/contract prices.

A short sale allows investors to profit from a decline in a security's price if they believe the security is overpriced. In this procedure an investor (the seller) borrows shares of stock from another investor (the lender) through a broker and sells the shares. The lender keeps the proceeds of the sale as collateral. Later, the investor (the short seller) must repurchase the shares in the market in order to return the shares that were borrowed (covering the short position) to the lender. If the stock price has fallen, the shares will be repurchased at a lower price than that at which they were initially sold, and the short seller reaps a profit equal to the drop in price times the number of shares sold short.

For options, to be long means you are the buyer of the option. To be short means you are the seller of the option. Since the put option contract holder (long) has the right to sell the underlying to the option writer, he or she is actually short the underlying instrument.

The profit in short selling is limited to the value of the security, but the loss is theoretically unlimited. In practice, as the price of a security rises the short seller will receive a margin call from the broker, demanding that the short seller either to cover his short position (by purchasing the security) or to provide additional cash in order to meet the margin requirement for the security, which effectively places a limit on the amount that can be lost.

Leveraged Positions

Margin transactions occurs when investors who purchases stocks borrow part of the purchase price of the stock from their brokers, and leave purchased stocks with the brokerage firm because the securities are used as collateral for the loan. The interest rate of the margin credit charged by the broker is typically 1.5% above the rate charged by the bank making the loan. The bank rate (called the call money rate) is normally about 1% below the prime rate. The market value of the collateral stock minus the amount borrowed is called the investor's equity.

Investors can achieve greater upside potential, but they also expose themselves to greater downside risk. The leverage equals 1/margin%.

Buying stocks on margin increases the investment's financial risk and thus requires a higher rate of return.

  • Percentage margin. The ratio of the net worth, or "equity value" of the account to the market value of the securities.

  • Maintenance margin. The required proportion of your equity to the total value of the stock. It protects the broker if the stock price declines.

  • Margin call. If the percentage margin falls below the maintenance margin, the broker issues a margin call requiring the investor to add new cash or securities to the margin account. If the investor fails to provide the required funds in time, the broker will sell the collateral stock to pay off the loan.

Example

Suppose an investor initially pays $6,000 toward the purchase of $10,000 worth of stock ($100 shares at $100 per share), borrowing the remaining from the broker. The maintenance margin is set to be 30%. The initial percentage margin is 60%. If the price of the stock falls to $57.14, the value of his stock will be $5,714. Since the loan is $4,000, the percentage margin now is (5,714 - 4,000) / 5714 = 29.9%. The investor will get a margin call.

When investors acquire stock or other investments on margin, they are increasing the financial risk of the investment beyond the risk inherent in the security itself. They should increase their required rate of return accordingly.

R...

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Subject 5. Orders
#analyst-notes #market-organization-and-structure
Orders are instructions to trade. They always specify instrument, side (buy or sell), and quantity.

  • Bid price: the highest price that a buyer wants to pay for the instrument. The best bid is the highest bid in the market.
  • Ask price: the lowest price a seller is willing to accept for the instrument. Also called offer price. The best offer is the lowest in the market.
  • Bid-ask spread: the difference between the best bid and the best offer.

Orders usually also provide several other instructions.

Execution Instructions

They indicate how to fill the order.

Market orders are simple buy or sell orders that are to be executed immediately at current market prices. They provide immediate liquidity for someone willing to accept the prevailing market price.

A limit order is an order that sets the maximum or minimum at which you are willing to buy or sell a particular stock. For instance, if you want to buy stock ABC, which is trading at $12, you can set a limit order for $10. This guarantees that you will pay no more than $10 to buy this stock. Once the stock reaches $10 or less, you will automatically buy a predetermined amount of shares. On the other hand, if you own stock ABC and it is trading at $12, you could place a limit order to sell it at $15. This guarantees that the stock will be sold at $15 or more.

The primary advantage of a limit order is that it guarantees that the trade will be made at a particular price; however, it's possible that your order will not be executed at all if the limit price is not reached.

Traders choose order submission strategies on the basis of how quickly they want to trade, the prices they are willing to accept, and the consequences of failing to trade.

Validity Instructions

They indicate when the order may be filled.

A day order (the most common) is a market or limit order that is in force from the time the order is submitted to the end of the day's trading session.

A good-till-canceled order requires a specific canceling order. It can persist indefinitely (although brokers may set some limits, for example, 90 days).

An immediate-or-cancel order (IOC) will be immediately executed or canceled by the exchange. Unlike a fill-or-killorder, IOC orders allow for partial fills.

An order may be specified on the close or on the open, then it is entered in an auction but has no effect otherwise.

Different types of orders allow you to be more specific about how you'd like your broker to fulfill your trades. When you place a stop or limit order, you are telling your broker that you don't want the market price (the current price at which a stock is trading), but that you want the stock price to move in a certain direction before your order is executed.

With a stop order, your trade will be executed only when the security you want to buy or sell reaches a particular price (the stop price). Once the stock has reached this price, a stop order essentially becomes a market order and is filled. For instance, if you own stock ABC, which currently trades at $20, and you place a stop order to sell it at $15, your order will only be filled once stock ABC drops below $15. Also known as a "stop-loss order", this allows you to limit your losses. However, this type of order can also be used to guarantee profits. For example, assume that you bought stock XYZ at $10 per share and now the stock is trading at $20 per share. Placing a stop order at $15 will guarantee profits of approximately $5 per share, depending on how quickly the market order can be filled.

Stop orders are particularly advantageous to investors who are unable to monitor their stocks for a period of time, and brokerages may even set these stop orders for no charge.

One disadva...

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Subject 6. Primary security markets
#analyst-notes #market-organization-and-structure
The primary markets are those in which new issues of bonds, preferred stock, or common stock are sold by government units, municipalities, or companies to acquire new capital.

  • New issue.
  • Key factor: issuer receives the proceeds from the sale.

Two important rules in the primary capital markets:

  • Rule 415 allows large firms to register security issues and sell them in piecemeal over the following two years. Such issues are called shelf-registration. It allows a single registration document to be filed that permits the issuance of multiple securities.
  • Rule 144A allows corporations (including non-U.S. firms) to place securities privately with large, sophisticated investors. The issuer of a private placement reduces issuing costs because it does not have to complete the extensive registration documents. However, investors will require a higher return since no secondary market exists and thus the liquidity risk is high.

New stock issues are divided into two groups:

  • Initial public offerings (IPOs). These are new shares that a firm offers to the public for the first time. They are typically underwritten by investment bankers through negotiated arrangements (the most common form), competitive bids and best-effort arrangements (investment bankers act as brokers, not taking the price risk).
  • Seasoned equity issues. These are new shares issued by firms that already have stocks outstanding.

A rights issue is an option that a company can opt for to raise capital under a secondary market offering or seasoned equity offering of shares to raise money. It is a special form of shelf offering or shelf registration. With the issued rights, existing shareholders have the privilege to buy a specified number of new shares from the firm at a specified price within a specified time.

Government bond issues are sold at Federal Reserve auctions.

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Subject 7. Secondary security market and contract market structures
#analyst-notes #market-organization-and-structure

The secondary markets permit trading in outstanding issues; that is, stocks or bonds already sold to the public are traded between current and potential owners.

  • Existing owner sells to another party.
  • Issuing firm does not receive proceeds and is not directly involved.

Secondary markets support primary markets.

  • The secondary market provides liquidity to the individuals who acquired these securities, and the primary market benefits greatly from the liquidity provided by the secondary market because investors would hesitate to acquire securities in the primary market if they thought they could not subsequently sell them in the secondary market.

  • Secondary markets are also important to issuers because the prevailing market price of the securities is determined by transactions in the secondary market. New issues of outstanding securities (seasoned securities) in the primary market are based on the prices in the secondary market. Forthcoming IPOs in the primary market are priced based on the prices of comparable stocks in the public secondary market.

Trading Sessions

Securities exchanges differ in when the stocks are traded.

In a call market, trading for individual stocks takes place at specified times. The intent is to gather all the bids and asks for the stock and attempt to arrive at a single price where the quantity demanded is as close as possible to the quantity supplied.

  • This trading arrangement is generally used during the early stages of development of an exchange when there are few stocks listed or a small number of active investors/traders.
  • Call markets also are used at the opening for stocks on the NYSE if there is an overnight buildup of buy and sell orders, in which case the opening price can differ from the prior day's closing price.
  • The concept is also used if trading is suspended during the day because of some significant new information. The mechanism is considered to contribute to a more orderly market and less volatility in such instances because it attempts to avoid major up and down price swings.

In a continuous market, trades occur at any time the market is open. Stocks are priced either by auction or by dealers. In an auction market, there are sufficient willing buyers and sellers to keep the market continuous. In a dealer market, enough dealers are willing to buy or sell the stock.

Please note that dealers may exist in some auction markets. These dealers provide temporary liquidity and ensure market continuity if the market does not have enough activity.

Although many exchanges are considered continuous, they (e.g. NYSE) also employ a call-market mechanism on specific occasions.

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Subject 8. Well-functioning financial systems
#analyst-notes #market-organization-and-structure
Well-functioning financial systems have the following characteristics:

  • Complete markets. The instruments needed to solve investment and risk management problems are available to trade.

  • Liquidity. As asset can be bought and sold quickly (that is, it has marketability, which means an asset's likelihood of being sold quickly.) at a price close to the prices for previous transactions (price continuity), assuming no new information has been received. In turn, price continuity requires depth, which means the numerous potential buyers and sellers must be willing to trade at prices above and below the current market price.

  • Operational efficiency. Low transaction costs (as a percentage of the value of the trade) include the cost of reaching the market, the actual brokerage costs, and the cost of transferring the asset. This attribute is often referred to as internal efficiency.

  • Informational (or external) efficiency. Timely and accurate information is available on the price and volume of past transactions and the prevailing bid-price and ask-price. Prices rapidly adjust to new information; thus the prevailing price is fair because it reflects all available information regarding the asset. Prices will be most informative in liquid markets because information-motivated traders will not invest in information and research if establishing positions based on their analysis is too costly.

A well-functioning financial system promotes wealth by ensuring that capital allocation decisions are well made. It also promotes wealth by allowing people to share the risks associated with valuable products that would otherwise not be undertaken.

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Subject 9. Market regulation
#analyst-notes #market-organization-and-structure
Regulators generally seek to promote fair and orderly markets in which traders can trade at prices that accurately reflect fundamental values without incurring excessive transaction costs. Governmental agencies and self-regulating organizations of practitioners provide regulatory services that attempt to make markets safer and more efficient.

The objectives of market regulation are to:

  • control fraud. Customers may not know how to protect themselves since the financial markets are quite complex.
  • control agency problems. Financial agents often have different goals from their customers. How to effectively measure the services they provide?
  • promote fairness. For example, insider trading is prohibited in most markets as it offends basic notions of fairness.
  • set mutually beneficial standards. Common financial standards allow investors to compare companies easily.
  • prevent undercapitalized financial firms from exploiting their investors by making excessive risky investments.Regulators generally require that financial firms to maintain minimum levels of capital to reduce the probability that these firms will fail and hurt their customers.
  • ensure that long-term liabilities are funded. Insurance companies and pension funds need to maintain adequate reserves to ensure they can pay their liabilities when due.

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Subject 2. Index construction and management
#analyst-notes #has-images #security-market-indices
The steps to construct and manage a security market index:

  • To construct an index the first decision is to identify the target market. Which market should the index represent?

  • The second decision is to select specific securities to include in the index. How many securities to include? Which ones? The following factors are important:

    • The size: the larger, the better - but eventually the costs of taking a larger sample will outweigh the benefits.
    • The breadth of the sample: the sample must represent the total population.
    • The source of the sample: samples must be taken from each different segment of the population.

  • The third decision is to determine the weight to be allocated to each security in the index (discussed below).

  • When should the index be rebalanced?

  • When should the security selection and weighting decisions be re-examined?

Price Weighting

It is an arithmetic average of current prices. Index movements are influenced by the differential prices of the components.

The weight of each security is calculated using this formula:

The index itself is computed by:

  • Adding up the market price of each stock in the index, then
  • Dividing this total price by the number of stocks in the index: price-weighted series = sum of stock prices / number of stocks in the series.

Example

The shares of firm A sells for $100, and the shares of firm B sells for $25. The initial price index is (100 + 25) / 2 = 62.5. The divisor is therefore 2.

  • Normal situation. Suppose that A increases by 10% to $110, and B increases by 20% to $30, the price index would be (110 + 30) /2 = 70. The rate of return would be: (70 - 62.5) / 62.5 = 12%.
  • Stock split. If A were to split two for one, and its share price were therefore to fall to $50, we would not want the average to fall since that would incorrectly indicate a fall in the general level of market prices. Following a split the divisor must be reduced to a value that leaves the average unaffected by the split. The new divisor is: (50 + 25) / 62.5 = 1.2, which will make the initial value of the average unaffected.

Price-weighting is simple, but a price-weighted index has a downward bias.

  • High-priced stocks have greater impact on the index than low-priced stocks, as the scheme assumes that an investor purchases an equal number of shares for each stock in the index.
  • Large, successful firms consistently lose weight within the index since high-growth companies tend to split their stocks more often. Over time, low growth, small firms with high prices will dominate the index.

Both Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) and Nikkei-Dow Jones Average use this method to weight an index.

Equal Weighting

All stocks carry equal weight regardless of their price or market value. A $1 stock is as important as a $10 stock, and a firm with $200 million market value is the same as one with $200 billion.

The actual movements in the index are typically based on the arithmetic average of the percent changes in price or value for the stocks in the index: each percent change has equal weight. Such an index can be used by individuals who randomly select stock for their portfolio and invest the same dollar amount in each stock.

The weight of each security is calculated using this formula:
...

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Subject 3. Uses of market indices
#analyst-notes #security-market-indices
Security market indices are used:

  • For predicting future market movements by technicians. Technicians believe past price changes can be used to predict future price movements. For example, to project future stock price movements, technicians would plot and analyze price and volume changes for a stock market series like the DJIA.

  • To measure market rates of return in economic studies.

  • As a proxy for the market portfolio of risky assets. When calculating the systematic risk of an asset, it is necessary to relate its returns to the returns for an aggregate market index that is used as a proxy for the market portfolio of risky assets.

  • As benchmarks to evaluate the performance of professional money managers. A basic assumption when evaluating portfolio performance is that any investor should be able to experience a rate of return comparable to the market return by randomly selecting a large number of stocks from the total market. Therefore, a stock-market index can be used as a benchmark to judge the performance of professional money managers.

  • To create and monitor an index fund or an exchange-traded fund (EFT). An index fund is created to track the performance of the specific market series (index) over time.

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Subject 4. Different types of security market indices
#analyst-notes #security-market-indices
Equity Indices

There are different types of equity indices.

A broad market index represents an entire given equity market. Examples are Russell 3000, Wilshire 5000 Total Market Index, etc.

Local indices of individual countries lack consistency in sample selection, weighting, or computational procedures. Global equity indexes are created to solve this comparability problem. A multi-market index represents multiple security markets. For example, the Dow Jones World Stock Index includes 2,200 companies in 33 countries.

A sector index measures the performance of a narrow market segment, such as biotechnology sector. It can be used to determine if a portfolio manager is good at sector allocation or not. It can also be used to track the performance of sector-specific funds.

Style strategies focus on the underlying characteristics common to certain investments. Growth is a different style than value, and large capitalization investing is a different style than small stock investing. A growth strategy may focus on high price-to-earnings stocks, and a value strategy on low price-to-earnings stocks. Style indices are created to represent such securities.

Fixed Income Indices

The creation and computation of bond-market indices is more difficult than a stock market series.

  • The universe of bonds is much broader than that of stocks.
  • The universe of bonds is changing constantly because of new issues, bond maturities, calls and bond sinking funds.
  • The volatility of prices for individual bonds and bond portfolios changes because bond price volatility is affected by duration, which is changing constantly.
  • Pricing individual bonds is more difficult compared to the current and continuous transactions prices available for most stocks used in stock indexes.

All bond indices indicate total rates of return for the portfolio of bonds, including price change, accrued interest, and coupon income reinvested. They are relatively new and not widely published. Most of indices are market-value weighted.

Bond indices can be categorized based on their broad characteristics, such as type of issuer, currency, maturity and credit rating. For example, there are different indices for government bonds, high-yield bonds, corporate bonds and mortgage-backed securities.

Commodity Indices

There are five major commodity sectors: energy, grains, metals, food and fiber and livestock.

A commodity price index is a fixed-weight index of selected commodity prices, which may be based on spot or futures prices. It is designed to be representative of the broad commodity asset class or a specific subset of commodities, such as energy or metals.

  • Different commodity indices have different weighting methods which result in different risk and return profiles.
  • A commodity index may track commodities directly, or indirectly by tracking futures contracts for certain commodities. For example, commodity indices may track energy products or currencies, or may tracks futures contracts in either of those. For a commodity index that consists of futures contracts on the commodities, the index returns are affected by factors such as the prices of the underlying commodity, risk-free interest rate, and the roll yield.

Real Estate Investment Trust Indices

The types of real estate indices include appraisal indices, repeat sales indices, and REIT indices which track the performance of public traded REITs.

Hedge Funds Indices

There are many indices that track the hedge fund industry. Since hedge funds are illiquid, heterogeneous and ephemeral, it is really hard to construct a satisfactory index.

Funds' participation in an index is voluntary, leading to self-selection bias because those funds that choose to report may not be...

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Subject 1. The concept of market efficiency
#analyst-notes #market-efficency

An efficient capital market is one in which security prices adjust rapidly to the arrival of new information and the current prices of securities reflect all information about the security. Therefore, it is also called an informationally efficient capital market.

Why should capital markets be efficient? Competition is the source of efficiency, and price changes should be independent and random.

  • A large number of competing profit-maximizing participants analyze and value securities, each independently of the others.
  • New information regarding securities comes to the market in a random fashion, and the timing of the announcement is generally independent of others.
  • The competing investors attempt to adjust security prices rapidly to reflect the effect of new information. The price adjustment is unbiased: sometimes the market will over-adjust and other times it will under-adjust, but you cannot prefect its behavior.

In an efficient market, the expected returns implicit in the current price of the security should reflect its risk. Investors buying the security should receive a return that is consistent with the perceived risk of the security.

In an efficient capital market the majority of portfolio managers cannot beat a buy-and-hold policy on a risk-adjusted basis. An index fund which simply attempts to match the market at the lowest cost is preferable to an actively managed portfolio.

Market Value versus Intrinsic Value

  • Intrinsic value is the true, actual value of an asset. It is what the asset is really worth.
  • Market value is the price of an asset. It is what buyers are willing to pay for the asset.

In an efficient market, the two values should be very close or the same. In other words, in an efficient market at any point in time the actual price of a security will be a good estimate of its intrinsic value. Though market value and the intrinsic value may differ across time, the discrepancy will get corrected as new information arrives.

In an inefficient market, the two may differ significantly.

Factors Affecting a Market's Efficiency

Some factors contribute to and impede the degree of efficiency in a financial marke
  • The number of market participants. The more investors and analysts that follow a financial market, the more efficient it becomes.
  • Information availability and financial disclosure. All investors should have access to the necessary information to value securities. This should promote market efficiency.
  • Limits to trading. Some researchers argue that restrictions on short selling impede market efficiency.

Transaction costs and information-acquisition costs should also be considered when evaluating market efficiency.

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Subject 2. Forms of market efficiency
#analyst-notes #market-efficency
There are three versions of the Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH); they differ by their notions of what is meant by the term "all available information".

  • The weak-form hypothesis asserts that stock prices already reflect all information that can be derived by examining market trading data such as the history of past prices, trading volume, or short interest. This implies that trend analysis is fruitless: if such data ever conveyed reliable signals about future performance, all investors would have learned such signals already.

  • The semistrong-form hypothesis states that all publicly available information regarding the prospects of a firm must be reflected already in the stock price. Such information includes, in addition to past prices, fundamental data on the firm's product line, quality of management, balance sheet composition, patents held, earning forecasts, and accounting practices. Obviously this version encompasses the weak-form EMH. This hypothesis implies that an investor cannot achieve risk-adjusted excess returns using important publicinformation.

    Event studies examine how fast stock prices adjust to specific significant economic events. The results for most of these studies have supported the semistrong-form EMH. About the only mixed results come from exchange listing studies.

  • The strong-form hypothesis states that stock prices reflect all information (from public and private sources) relevant to the firm, even include information available only to company insiders. This version of EMH encompasses both the weak-form and the semistrong-form EMH. It is quite extreme. It implies that no investor has monopolistic access to information that influences prices. Thus, no investor can consistently derive risk-adjusted excess returns. In fact, the strong-form EMH assumes perfect markets, in which all information is cost free and available to everyone at the same time. In contrast, in an efficient market prices adjust rapidly to new public information.

Implications of EMHs

Technical Analysis

The assumptions of technical analysis directly oppose the notion of efficient markets.

  • The process of disseminating new information takes time.
  • Stock prices move to new equilibriums in a gradual manner.
  • Hence, stock prices move in trends that persist.

Therefore, technical analysts believe that good traders can detect the significant stock price changes before others do. However, as confirmed by most studies, the capital market is weak-form efficient as prices fully reflect all market information as soon as the information becomes public. Though prices may not be adjusted perfectly in an efficient market, it is unpredictable whether the market will over-adjust or under-adjust at any time. Therefore, technical analysts should not generate abnormal returns and no technical trading system should have any value.

Fundamental Analysis

Fundamental analysts believe that

  • At any time, there is a basic intrinsic value for the aggregate stock market, various industries, or individual securities;
  • These values depend on underlying economic factors such as cash flows and risk variables;
  • Though market price and the intrinsic value may differ across time, the discrepancy will get corrected as new information arrives.

Therefore, by accurately estimating the intrinsic value, a fundamental analyst can achieve abnormal returns by making superior market timing decisions or acquiring undervalued securities.

Fundamental analysis involves aggregate market analysis, industry analysis, company analysis and portfolio management. However, using historical data to estimate the relevant variables is as much an art and a product of hard work as it is a s...

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Subject 3. Market pricing anomalies
#analyst-notes #market-efficency
Are the hypotheses supported by the data? Are there market patterns that lead to abnormal returns more often than not?

A market anomaly is a security price distortion in the market that seems to contradict the efficient market hypothesis. There are different categories of market anomalies.

Time-Series Anomalies

Calendar anomalies question whether some regularities exist in the rates of return during the calendar year that would allow investors to predict returns on stocks.

The January anomaly, also called small-firm-in-January effect, says that many people sell stocks that have declined in price during the previous months to realize their capital losses before the end of the tax year. Such investors do not put the proceeds from these sales back into the stock market until after the turn of the year. At that point the rush of demand for stock places an upward pressure on prices that results in the January effect. The effect is said to show up most dramatically for the smallest firms because the small-firm group includes stocks with the greatest variability of prices during the year (and the group therefore includes a relatively large number of firms that have declined sufficiently to induce tax-loss selling).

Another possible reason for January effect on stock markets is strategic selling by institutional investors at the end of their reporting periods. Portfolio managers may be reluctant to report holdings of stocks in their annual reports that have performed poorly in the previous period. Therefore, the managers sell these stocks at the end of their accounting periods (usually end of December). This so-called window-dressing was suggested as a source of the January effect by Haugen and Lakonishok (1988).

Despite numerous studies, the January anomaly poses as many questions as it answers.

Other calendar studies include monthly effect, weekend or day of the week effect, and intraday effect.

Momentum and Overreaction Anomalies. The debate surrounding investor overreaction and contrarian investing is one of the most extensive and controversial areas of research in finance. The overreaction anomaly, evidenced by long-term reversals in stock returns, was first identified by De Bondt and Thaler (1985), who showed that stocks which perform poorly in the past three to five years demonstrate superior performance over the next three to five years compared to stocks that have performed well in the past. The study provided evidence that abnormal excess returns could be gained by employing a strategy of buying past losers and selling short past winners, or the contrarian strategy.

Although the overreaction anomaly and market momentum do seem to exist, researchers have argued that the existence of momentum is rational, and the additional return (based on the contrarian investment strategy) would come simply at the expense of increased risk.

Cross-Sectional Anomalies

If the semi-strong EMH is true, all securities should have equal risk-adjusted returns because security prices should reflect all public information that would influence the security's risk. Using public information, is it possible to determine what stocks will enjoy above-average, risk-adjusted returns?

The size effect relates to the impact of size (measured by the total market value) on risk-adjusted rates of return. Some researchers found that the small firms outperformed the large firms after considering risk and transaction costs.

Basu's study concluded that publicly available P/E ratios possessed valuable information, and the risk-adjusted returns for stocks in the lowest P/E ratio quintile were superior to those in the highest P/E ratio quintile. This is known as the value effect.

Fama and French found that both size and BV/MV ratio are significant when included together, and they dominate other ratios. The dramatic dependence o...

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Subject 4. Behavioral finance
#analyst-notes #market-efficency
Some investors behave highly irrationally and make predictable errors. Behavior finance is a field of finance that proposes psychology-based theories to explain stock market anomalies. Within behavioral finance, it is assumed that the information structure and the characteristics of market participants systematically influence individuals' investment decisions as well as market outcomes. There have been many studies that have documented long-term historical phenomena in securities markets that contradict the efficient market hypothesis and cannot be captured plausibly in models based on perfect investor rationality. Behavioral finance attempts to fill the void.

Loss Aversion

It is a theory that people value gains and losses differently and, as such, will base decisions on perceived losses rather than perceived gains. Thus, if a person were given two equal choices, one expressed in terms of possible losses and the other in possible gains, people would choose the former.

Overconfidence

Most people consider themselves to be better than average in most things they do. For example, 80% of drivers contend that they are better than "average" drivers. Is that really possible? Studies show that money managers, advisors, and investors are consistently overconfident in their ability to outperform the market. Most fail to do so, however.

Other behavior theories include representativeness, gambler's fallacy, mental accounting, etc.

Information Cascades

Information cascading is defined as a situation in which an individual imitates the trades of other market participants and completely disregards his or her own private information. A related concept is herding, which is clustered trading that may or may not be based on information. Some researchers argue that institutional investors trade together because they receive correlated private information or infer private information from previous trades, and institutional herding helps prices to more quickly reflect market information and improve market efficiency. The result is that trading does not incorporate information and prices can move away from fundamentals.

Some researchers argue that information cascades help promote market efficiency.

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Flashcard 1409984892172

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Positive Signs:
• Auscultation of the fetal heart
• Perception of fetal movement by an experienced examiner
• Demonstration of a fetus by ultrasound: intrauterine sac visible by 5 weeks amenorrhea, fetal pole at 6 weeks, fetal cardiac activity at 7-8 weeks (transvaginal ultrasound)
• Positive pregnancy test: presence of [...]; the serum is positive by 9 days post conception; plasma levels double every 48 hours to a maximum at 8-10 weeks gestation when it plateaus (if there are abnormalities in how the β-hCG is rising, consider missed abortion or ectopic pregnancy; if the β-hCG is higher than expected consider twins or molar pregnancy)
• β-hCG may also be detected in urine (28 days after last menstrual period)
Answer
β-hCG


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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Dx of pregnancy: Positive Signs
perienced examiner • Demonstration of a fetus by ultrasound: intrauterine sac visible by 5 weeks amenorrhea, fetal pole at 6 weeks, fetal cardiac activity at 7-8 weeks (transvaginal ultrasound) • Positive pregnancy test: presence of <span>β-hCG; the serum is positive by 9 days post conception; plasma levels double every 48 hours to a maximum at 8-10 weeks gestation when it plateaus (if there are abnormalities in how the β-hCG







Flashcard 1410054622476



Tags
#has-images


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Ultrasound Tests in Pregnancy
#obgyn
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy:
1. FTS
2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan)
3. growth
4. BPP
5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa)
6. Third trimester scan

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Flashcard 1410110721292

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy:
1. [...]
2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan)
3. growth
4. BPP
5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa)
6. Third trimester scan
Answer
FTS


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Ultrasound Tests in Pregnancy
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy: 1. FTS 2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan) 3. growth 4. BPP 5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa) 6. Third trimester s







Flashcard 1410112294156

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy:
1. FTS
2. [...]
3. growth
4. BPP
5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa)
6. Third trimester scan
Answer
Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Ultrasound Tests in Pregnancy
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy: 1. FTS 2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan) 3. growth 4. BPP 5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa) 6. Third trimester scan







Flashcard 1410113867020

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy:
1. FTS
2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan)
3. [...]
4. BPP
5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa)
6. Third trimester scan
Answer
growth


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Ultrasound Tests in Pregnancy
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy: 1. FTS 2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan) 3. growth 4. BPP 5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa) 6. Third trimester scan







Flashcard 1410115439884

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy:
1. FTS
2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan)
3. growth
4. [...]
5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa)
6. Third trimester scan
Answer
BPP


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Ultrasound Tests in Pregnancy
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy: 1. FTS 2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan) 3. growth 4. BPP 5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa) 6. Third trimester scan







Flashcard 1410117012748

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy:
1. FTS
2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan)
3. growth
4. BPP
5. [...]
6. Third trimester scan
Answer
Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Ultrasound Tests in Pregnancy
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy: 1. FTS 2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan) 3. growth 4. BPP 5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa) 6. Third trimester scan







Flashcard 1410118585612

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy:
1. FTS
2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan)
3. growth
4. BPP
5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa)
6. [...]
Answer
Third trimester scan


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Ultrasound Tests in Pregnancy
><head>Ultrasound-using Tests in pregnancy: 1. FTS 2. Complete OB scan (aka 18-20wk scan or anatomy scan) 3. growth 4. BPP 5. Doppler flow studies (umbilica a, middle cerebral a, uterine aa) 6. Third trimester scan<html>







First trimester scan
#obgyn
FTS:
• Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity
• Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at 11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]

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Flashcard 1410121731340

Tags
#obgyn
Question
FTS:
• Useful for: [...], to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity
• Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at 11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]
Answer
accurately establishing dates


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First trimester scan
FTS: • Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity • Many people will have this for measurement o







Flashcard 1410123304204

Tags
#obgyn
Question
FTS:
• Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine [...], to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity
• Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at 11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]
Answer
viability


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First trimester scan
FTS: • Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity • Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal trans







Flashcard 1410124877068

Tags
#obgyn
Question
FTS:
• Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O [...], to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity
• Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at 11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]
Answer
ectopic pregnancy


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First trimester scan
FTS: • Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity • Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of th







Flashcard 1410126449932

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Question
FTS:
• Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine [...] and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity
• Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at 11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]
Answer
number of fetuses


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First trimester scan
FTS: • Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity • Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening a







Flashcard 1410128022796

Tags
#obgyn
Question
FTS:
• Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish [...]
• Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at 11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]
Answer
chorionicity


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First trimester scan
FTS: • Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity • Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at 11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integra







Flashcard 1410129595660

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#obgyn
Question
FTS:
• Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity
• Many people will have this for measurement of the [...] as part of their prenatal genetic screening at 11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]
Answer
fetal nuchal translucency (NT)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First trimester scan
S: • Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity • Many people will have this for measurement of the <span>fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at 11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410131168524

Tags
#obgyn
Question
FTS:
• Useful for: accurately establishing dates, to determine viability, to R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity
• Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at [...] weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]
Answer
11-14


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First trimester scan
o R/O ectopic pregnancy, to determine number of fetuses and in multiple pregnancy to establish chorionicity • Many people will have this for measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency (NT) as part of their prenatal genetic screening at <span>11-14 weeks [First Trimester Screen (FTS), Integrated Prenatal Screen (IPS)]<span><body><html>







The complete OB scan, aka 18-20 wk scan/anatomy scan
#obgyn
The Complete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan)
• Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems
• Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks
• Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)

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Flashcard 1410134838540

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Question
The Complete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan)
• Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems
• Ideally carried out between [...] wks
• Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)
Answer
18-20


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

The complete OB scan, aka 18-20 wk scan/anatomy scan
The Complete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan) • Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems • Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks • Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear







Flashcard 1410136411404

Tags
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Question
The Complete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan)
• Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems
• Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks
• Complete scan should establish that there is a [...] fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)
Answer
live, structurally normal intrauterine


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

The complete OB scan, aka 18-20 wk scan/anatomy scan
ete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan) • Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems • Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks • Complete scan should establish that there is a <span>live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae,







Flashcard 1410137984268

Tags
#obgyn
Question
The Complete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan)
• Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems
• Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks
• Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal [...], locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)
Answer
amniotic fluid volume


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

The complete OB scan, aka 18-20 wk scan/anatomy scan
be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems • Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks • Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal <span>amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)







Flashcard 1410139557132

Tags
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Question
The Complete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan)
• Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems
• Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks
• Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the [...] and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)
Answer
placenta


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

The complete OB scan, aka 18-20 wk scan/anatomy scan
as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems • Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks • Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the <span>placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410141129996

Tags
#obgyn
Question
The Complete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan)
• Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems
• Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks
• Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the [...], and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)
Answer
internal os


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

The complete OB scan, aka 18-20 wk scan/anatomy scan
problems • Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks • Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the <span>internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410142702860

Tags
#obgyn
Question
The Complete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan)
• Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems
• Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks
• Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any [...] abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)
Answer
uterine and adnexal


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

The complete OB scan, aka 18-20 wk scan/anatomy scan
ed out between 18-20 wks • Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any <span>uterine and adnexal abnormalities (fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410144275724

Tags
#obgyn
Question
The Complete Obstetrical Scan (AKA Anatomy Scan)
• Should be offered to all pregnant women as a screen for placental, fetal, and pregnancy problems
• Ideally carried out between 18-20 wks
• Complete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities ([...])
Answer
fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

The complete OB scan, aka 18-20 wk scan/anatomy scan
plete scan should establish that there is a live, structurally normal intrauterine fetus, normal amniotic fluid volume, locate the placenta and establish that it is clear of the internal os, and identify any uterine and adnexal abnormalities (<span>fibroids, bands, septae, short cervix, ovarian masses)<span><body><html>







Checking fetal growth with US
#obgyn
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves

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Flashcard 1410147159308

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated [...], fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves
Answer
fetal weight (EFW)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Checking fetal growth with US
Fetal Growth • A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc. • Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 week







Flashcard 1410148732172

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), [...], biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves
Answer
fetal abdominal circumference (AC)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Checking fetal growth with US
Fetal Growth • A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc. • Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend • A fetu







Flashcard 1410150305036

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), [...], femur length (FL), etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves
Answer
biparietal diameter (BPD)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Checking fetal growth with US
Fetal Growth • A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc. • Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend • A fetus growing below the 10th ce







Flashcard 1410151877900

Tags
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Question
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), [...], etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves
Answer
femur length (FL)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Checking fetal growth with US
Fetal Growth • A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc. • Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend • A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling of







Flashcard 1410153450764

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q [...] weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves
Answer
2


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Checking fetal growth with US
shed growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc. • Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q <span>2 weeks for a reliable trend • A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring







Flashcard 1410155023628

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the [...]th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves
Answer
10


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Checking fetal growth with US
), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc. • Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend • A fetus growing below the <span>10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery • Consider ethnicity – spe







Flashcard 1410156596492

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate [...], requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves
Answer
fetal abnormality or compromise


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Checking fetal growth with US
(BPD), femur length (FL), etc. • Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend • A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate <span>fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require early delivery • Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410158169356

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive [...] and may require early delivery
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves
Answer
monitoring


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Checking fetal growth with US
ion of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend • A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive <span>monitoring and may require early delivery • Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410159742220

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Fetal Growth
• A healthy fetus should follow established growth curves which exist for estimated fetal weight (EFW), fetal abdominal circumference (AC), biparietal diameter (BPD), femur length (FL), etc.
• Ultrasound estimation of fetal size/weight should NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend
• A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require [...]
• Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves
Answer
early delivery


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Checking fetal growth with US
ould NOT be repeated more often than q 2 weeks for a reliable trend • A fetus growing below the 10th centile or falling off its growth curve may indicate fetal abnormality or compromise, requires more intensive monitoring and may require <span>early delivery • Consider ethnicity – specific growth curves; twin-specific growth curves<span><body><html>







BPP
#obgyn
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.

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Flashcard 1410162625804

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of [...], tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
fetal gross body movement


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
Biophysical Profile (BPP) • Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume • Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased • Satisfactory score is 8 • Ultrasound para







Flashcard 1410164198668

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, [...], “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
tone


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
Biophysical Profile (BPP) • Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume • Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased • Satisfactory score is 8 • Ultrasound parameters







Flashcard 1410165771532

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, [...], amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
“breathing” movements


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
Biophysical Profile (BPP) • Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume • Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased • Satisfactory score is 8 • Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a







Flashcard 1410167344396

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, [...]
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
amniotic fluid volume


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
Biophysical Profile (BPP) • Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume • Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased • Satisfactory score is 8 • Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study: -







Flashcard 1410168917260

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a [...]minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
30-


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume • Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased • Satisfactory score is 8 • Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a <span>30-minute study: ----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements ----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand o







Flashcard 1410170490124

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: [...] discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
3


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
ements, amniotic fluid volume • Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased • Satisfactory score is 8 • Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study: ----1 . Gross Body Movement: <span>3 discrete body or limb movements ----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable) ----3 .







Flashcard 1410172062988

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of [...]
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
sent, 0 if not present or decreased • Satisfactory score is 8 • Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study: ----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements ----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of <span>active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable) ----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out) ----4 .







Flashcard 1410173635852

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one [...]-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
30


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
; ----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements ----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable) ----3 . Breathing Movements: one <span>30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out) ----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm







Flashcard 1410175208716

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement ([...])
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
or limb movements ----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable) ----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (<span>fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out) ----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of 2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8. <span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410176781580

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
• Ultrasound study of fetal gross body movement, tone, “breathing” movements, amniotic fluid volume
• Each factor given a score of 2 if present, 0 if not present or decreased
• Satisfactory score is 8
• Ultrasound parameters must be seen within a 30-minute study:
----1 . Gross Body Movement: 3 discrete body or limb movements
----2 . Fetal Tone: one episode of active extension with return to flexion of limb or trunk (hand opening and closing also acceptable)
----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out)
----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of [...] adequate for BPP
Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8.
Answer
2cm x 2cm


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

BPP
ng also acceptable) ----3 . Breathing Movements: one 30-second episode of fetal breathing movement (fetal diaphragm or kidneys seen to move up and down, chest wall or abdomen in and out) ----4 . Amniotic Fluid (AF): single pocket of <span>2cm x 2cm adequate for BPP Note that fetus may still have oligohydramnios with a BPP of 8/8. <span><body><html>







third trimester scan
#obgyn
Third trimester scan
• some obstetricians order routine third trimester ultrasound around 32 weeks
• currently, the cost/benefit is unproven
• reserve ultrasound in third trimester for specific indications: growth, position, re-assessment of identified problems (e.g. placenta if marginal or previa at 20 weeks, fetal pelviectasis)

statusnot read reprioritisations
last reprioritisation on reading queue position [%]
started reading on finished reading on




Flashcard 1410180189452

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Third trimester scan
• some obstetricians order routine third trimester ultrasound around [...] weeks
• currently, the cost/benefit is unproven
• reserve ultrasound in third trimester for specific indications: growth, position, re-assessment of identified problems (e.g. placenta if marginal or previa at 20 weeks, fetal pelviectasis)
Answer
32


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

third trimester scan
Third trimester scan • some obstetricians order routine third trimester ultrasound around 32 weeks • currently, the cost/benefit is unproven • reserve ultrasound in third trimester for specific indications: growth, position, re-assessment of identified problems (e.g.







Flashcard 1410181762316

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Third trimester scan
• some obstetricians order routine third trimester ultrasound around 32 weeks
• currently, the cost/benefit is unproven
• reserve ultrasound in third trimester for specific indications: [...], position, re-assessment of identified problems (e.g. placenta if marginal or previa at 20 weeks, fetal pelviectasis)
Answer
growth


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

third trimester scan
ad>Third trimester scan • some obstetricians order routine third trimester ultrasound around 32 weeks • currently, the cost/benefit is unproven • reserve ultrasound in third trimester for specific indications: growth, position, re-assessment of identified problems (e.g. placenta if marginal or previa at 20 weeks, fetal pelviectasis)<html>







Flashcard 1410183335180

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Third trimester scan
• some obstetricians order routine third trimester ultrasound around 32 weeks
• currently, the cost/benefit is unproven
• reserve ultrasound in third trimester for specific indications: growth, [...], re-assessment of identified problems (e.g. placenta if marginal or previa at 20 weeks, fetal pelviectasis)
Answer
position


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

third trimester scan
>Third trimester scan • some obstetricians order routine third trimester ultrasound around 32 weeks • currently, the cost/benefit is unproven • reserve ultrasound in third trimester for specific indications: growth, position, re-assessment of identified problems (e.g. placenta if marginal or previa at 20 weeks, fetal pelviectasis)<body><html>







Flashcard 1410184908044

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Third trimester scan
• some obstetricians order routine third trimester ultrasound around 32 weeks
• currently, the cost/benefit is unproven
• reserve ultrasound in third trimester for specific indications: growth, position, re-assessment of identified problems (e.g. [...])
Answer
placenta if marginal or previa at 20 weeks, fetal pelviectasis


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

third trimester scan
icians order routine third trimester ultrasound around 32 weeks • currently, the cost/benefit is unproven • reserve ultrasound in third trimester for specific indications: growth, position, re-assessment of identified problems (e.g. <span>placenta if marginal or previa at 20 weeks, fetal pelviectasis)<span><body><html>







Routine prenatal care
#obgyn
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)

statusnot read reprioritisations
last reprioritisation on reading queue position [%]
started reading on finished reading on




Flashcard 1410187791628

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ [...] weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
8-12


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
Routine prenatal care schedule: • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approxima







Flashcard 1410189364492

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every [...] weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
4


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
Routine prenatal care schedule: • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on







Flashcard 1410190937356

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until [...] weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
28


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
Routine prenatal care schedule: • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: I







Flashcard 1410192510220

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every [...] weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
2


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
Routine prenatal care schedule: • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired&#13







Flashcard 1410194083084

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from [...] weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
28-36


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
Routine prenatal care schedule: • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IP







Flashcard 1410195655948

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from [...] weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
36


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
Routine prenatal care schedule: • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprot







Flashcard 1410197228812

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every [...] from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
week


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
Routine prenatal care schedule: • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-







Flashcard 1410198801676

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately [...] weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
10


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
ne prenatal care schedule: • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately <span>10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in firs







Flashcard 1410200374540

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: [...] if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
IPS Part I or FTS


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
; • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: <span>IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultraso







Flashcard 1410201947404

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
[...] wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
11-14


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
hedule: • First visit ~ 8-12 weeks • Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • <span>11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-







Flashcard 1410203520268

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
[...] wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
15-20


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • <span>15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Or







Flashcard 1410205093132

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: [...] or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
IPS Part II


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
ks until 28 weeks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: <span>IPS Part II or Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challe







Flashcard 1410207452428

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or [...]
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
ks gestation • Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation • Every week from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or <span>Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for







Flashcard 1410209025292

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
[...] wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
18-20


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
from 36 weeks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • <span>18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B strep







Flashcard 1410210598156

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: [...]
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
Anatomy ultrasound


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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Routine prenatal care
ks to delivery • NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: <span>Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus • 40+ wks:







Flashcard 1410212171020

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
[...] wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
27-29


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • <span>27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus • 40+ wks: weekly bioph







Flashcard 1410213743884

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: [...] test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
Oral glucose challenge


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
ered from approximately 10 weeks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: <span>Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus • 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-date







Flashcard 1410215316748

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, [...], CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
eks on • 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired • 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, <span>Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus • 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates • Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3







Flashcard 1410216889612

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, [...]
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
CBC


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, <span>CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus • 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates • Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)</sp







Flashcard 1410218462476

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
[...] wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
36


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • <span>36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus • 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates • Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)<span>







Flashcard 1410220035340

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for [...]
• 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
Group B streptococcus


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for <span>Group B streptococcus • 40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates • Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410221608204

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
[...] wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
40+


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
ot tested in first trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus • <span>40+ wks: weekly biophysical profile for post-dates • Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410223181068

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine prenatal care schedule:
• First visit ~ 8-12 weeks
• Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks gestation
• Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation
• Every week from 36 weeks to delivery
• NIPT may be offered from approximately 10 weeks on
• 11-14 wks: IPS Part I or FTS if desired
• 15-20 wks: IPS Part II or Quad screen if want genetic screening and not tested in first trimester
• 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound
• 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC
• 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus
• 40+ wks: weekly [...] for post-dates
• Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)
Answer
biophysical profile


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine prenatal care
st trimester • 18-20 wks: Anatomy ultrasound • 27-29 wks: Oral glucose challenge test, Rh immune globulin (RhIG/Rhogam) for Rh negative patients, CBC • 36 wks: vagino-rectal swab for Group B streptococcus • 40+ wks: weekly <span>biophysical profile for post-dates • Should be delivered prior to 42 weeks (plan IOL at 41+3)<span><body><html>







Testing for GDM
#obgyn
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle

statusnot read reprioritisations
last reprioritisation on reading queue position [%]
started reading on finished reading on




Flashcard 1410228161804

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is [...]

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):

• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
Testing for GDM: • Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test Glucose Challenge Test (GCT): • no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed • 50g oral glucose load is given • wait one hour after drink with







Flashcard 1410230521100

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
[...]g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
50


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
pan>Testing for GDM: • Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test Glucose Challenge Test (GCT): • no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed • 50g oral glucose load is given • wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test • blood glucose <7.8 is considered a n







Flashcard 1410232093964

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait [...] hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
one


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
tandard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test Glucose Challenge Test (GCT): • no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed • 50g oral glucose load is given • wait <span>one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test • blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen • if result is 11.1 mmol







Flashcard 1410233666828

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <[...] is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
7.8


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed • 50g oral glucose load is given • wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test • blood glucose <<span>7.8 is considered a negative screen • if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present • if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test Gl







Flashcard 1410235239692

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is [...] mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
11.1


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
test needed • 50g oral glucose load is given • wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test • blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen • if result is <span>11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present • if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT): • patient must fast fro







Flashcard 1410236812556

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between [...], follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
7.8 and 11.0


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
r after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test • blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen • if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present • if value is between <span>7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT): • patient must fast from night before • fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning • 75g oral







Flashcard 1410238385420

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
[...]g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
75


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
ation diabetes is present • if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT): • patient must fast from night before • fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning • <span>75g oral glucose load is given • blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed • Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT: ---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L ---2 . 1-ho







Flashcard 1410239958284

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again [...] hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
1 and then 2


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
d 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT): • patient must fast from night before • fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning • 75g oral glucose load is given • blood is drawn again <span>1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed • Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT: ---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L ---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L ---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L • one abnormal







Flashcard 1410241531148

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ [...] mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
5.3


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
ust fast from night before • fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning • 75g oral glucose load is given • blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed • Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT: ---1 . FBS ≥ <span>5.3 mmol/L ---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L ---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L • one abnormal value = GDM Postpartum: • Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a







Flashcard 1410243104012

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ [...] mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
10.6


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning • 75g oral glucose load is given • blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed • Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT: ---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L ---2 . 1-hour ≥ <span>10.6 mmol/L ---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L • one abnormal value = GDM Postpartum: • Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months po







Flashcard 1410244676876

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ [...] mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
9.0


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
e morning • 75g oral glucose load is given • blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed • Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT: ---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L ---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L ---3 . 2-hour ≥ <span>9.0 mmol/L • one abnormal value = GDM Postpartum: • Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between 6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follo







Flashcard 1410246249740

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Testing for GDM:
• Current standard of care is to investigate all pregnancies with oral glucose challenge test

Glucose Challenge Test (GCT):
• no preparation required and no fasting prior to test needed
• 50g oral glucose load is given
• wait one hour after drink with no eating or drinking during this time, then draw blood for glucose test
• blood glucose <7.8 is considered a negative screen
• if result is 11.1 mmol/L, gestation diabetes is present
• if value is between 7.8 and 11.0, follow with glucose tolerance test

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT):
• patient must fast from night before
• fasting blood sugar drawn in the morning
• 75g oral glucose load is given
• blood is drawn again 1 and then 2 hours after the drink is completed
• Abnormal for 75g 2-hour GTT:
---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
• one abnormal value = GDM
Postpartum:
• Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between [...] postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor
• Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet and lifestyle
Answer
6wks and 6 months


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Testing for GDM
al for 75g 2-hour GTT: ---1 . FBS ≥ 5.3 mmol/L ---2 . 1-hour ≥ 10.6 mmol/L ---3 . 2-hour ≥ 9.0 mmol/L • one abnormal value = GDM Postpartum: • Ensure postpartum follow-up: pts with GDM should have a GTT between <span>6wks and 6 months postpartum, with appropriate follow-up with endocrinology or their family doctor • Patients with GDM have a very high risk of developing future DMII: may be impetus to improve diet







Rhogam
#obgyn
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized

statusnot read reprioritisations
last reprioritisation on reading queue position [%]
started reading on finished reading on




Flashcard 1410249133324

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is [...] and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
Rh negative


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG) • Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies • Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antep







Flashcard 1410250706188

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no [...]
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
Rh antibodies


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG) • Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies • Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpar







Flashcard 1410252279052

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at [...] weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
28


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG) • Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies • Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum) • Protect







Flashcard 1410253851916

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of [...] (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
feto-maternal hemorrhage


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG) • Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies • Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum) • Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks • During this time, patient’s







Flashcard 1410255424780

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. [...])
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG) • Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies • Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum) • Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks • During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive • Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well the







Flashcard 1410256997644

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately [...] weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
12


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
Rh antibodies • Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum) • Protection lasts approximately <span>12 weeks • During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive • Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will







Flashcard 1410258570508

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: [...]
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
neous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum) • Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks • During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive • Consider testing the father: <span>if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required • Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway • Rhogam is an IgG an







Flashcard 1410260143372

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to [...] if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
paternity


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
e positive • Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required • Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to <span>paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway • Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the mat







Flashcard 1410261716236

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an [...] antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
IgG


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
l then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required • Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway • Rhogam is an <span>IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy • Dose is 300 mcg given intra







Flashcard 1410263289100

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any [...] in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
Rh positive fetal red blood cells


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
e patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway • Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any <span>Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy • Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood&#







Flashcard 1410264861964

Tags
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Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is [...] given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
300 mcg


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
ternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway • Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy • Dose is <span>300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood • Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto







Flashcard 1410266434828

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at [...] weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
28


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
doubt, give anyway • Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy • Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at <span>28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood • Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage •







Flashcard 1410268007692

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~[...] mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
25


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy • Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~<span>25 mls of fetal blood • Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage • The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the first an







Flashcard 1410271677708

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Rh Immune Globulin (Rhogam, RhIG)
• Indicated if mother is Rh negative and has no Rh antibodies
• Given at 28 weeks or whenever there is possibility of feto-maternal hemorrhage (e.g. spontaneous abortion, termination, ectopic, CVS/amniocentesis, antepartum hemorrhage, postpartum)
• Protection lasts approximately 12 weeks
• During this time, patient’s antibody screen will be positive
• Consider testing the father: if father Rh negative as well then baby must be Rh negative and Rhogam will not be required
• Ensure patient understands the potential severity of alloimmunization. She must be certain as to paternity if declining RhIG - if in doubt, give anyway
• Rhogam is an IgG antibody, which prevents mother from mounting an immune response to any Rh positive fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation during pregnancy
• Dose is 300 mcg given intramuscularly at 28 weeks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood
• Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage
• The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the [...] visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized
Answer
first antenatal


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Rhogam
ks’ gestation: standard dose is sufficient to protect against ~25 mls of fetal blood • Do Betke-Kleihauer test and adjust dose if suspect larger feto-maternal hemorrhage • The blood group and antibody screen (G&S) ordered at the <span>first antenatal visit will identify if mother already has Rh antibodies - Rhogam not given to patients already alloimmunized<span><body><html>







GBS status
#obgyn
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status:
• Done at 36 weeks (earlier if threatened preterm labour)
• Single combined culture from vagina and anorectal area - patient may do own swab after instruction
• If positive, antibiotic prophylaxis given in labour to reduce risk of neonatal GBS infection
• If negative, swab within 5 weeks of delivery, no antibiotics in labour unless indicated for maternal pyrexia, etc.
• If any GBS bacteriuria during pregnancy, treat as GBS positive (indicator of heavy colonization, no need to do vaginal-rectal swab)
• This is NOT a maternal infection: about 10-30% of women are carriers of GBS; status can change over time

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last reprioritisation on reading queue position [%]
started reading on finished reading on




Flashcard 1410274561292

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status:
• Done at [...] weeks (earlier if threatened preterm labour)
• Single combined culture from vagina and anorectal area - patient may do own swab after instruction
• If positive, antibiotic prophylaxis given in labour to reduce risk of neonatal GBS infection
• If negative, swab within 5 weeks of delivery, no antibiotics in labour unless indicated for maternal pyrexia, etc.
• If any GBS bacteriuria during pregnancy, treat as GBS positive (indicator of heavy colonization, no need to do vaginal-rectal swab)
• This is NOT a maternal infection: about 10-30% of women are carriers of GBS; status can change over time
Answer
36


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

GBS status
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status: • Done at 36 weeks (earlier if threatened preterm labour) • Single combined culture from vagina and anorectal area - patient may do own swab after instruction • If positive, antibiotic pro







Flashcard 1410276134156

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status:
• Done at 36 weeks (earlier if threatened preterm labour)
• Single combined culture from vagina and anorectal area - patient may do own swab after instruction
• If positive, [...] given in labour to reduce risk of neonatal GBS infection
• If negative, swab within 5 weeks of delivery, no antibiotics in labour unless indicated for maternal pyrexia, etc.
• If any GBS bacteriuria during pregnancy, treat as GBS positive (indicator of heavy colonization, no need to do vaginal-rectal swab)
• This is NOT a maternal infection: about 10-30% of women are carriers of GBS; status can change over time
Answer
antibiotic prophylaxis


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

GBS status
body>Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status: • Done at 36 weeks (earlier if threatened preterm labour) • Single combined culture from vagina and anorectal area - patient may do own swab after instruction • If positive, antibiotic prophylaxis given in labour to reduce risk of neonatal GBS infection • If negative, swab within 5 weeks of delivery, no antibiotics in labour unless indicated for maternal pyrexia, etc. •







Flashcard 1410277707020

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status:
• Done at 36 weeks (earlier if threatened preterm labour)
• Single combined culture from vagina and anorectal area - patient may do own swab after instruction
• If positive, antibiotic prophylaxis given in labour to reduce risk of neonatal GBS infection
• If negative, swab within [...] weeks of delivery, no antibiotics in labour unless indicated for maternal pyrexia, etc.
• If any GBS bacteriuria during pregnancy, treat as GBS positive (indicator of heavy colonization, no need to do vaginal-rectal swab)
• This is NOT a maternal infection: about 10-30% of women are carriers of GBS; status can change over time
Answer
5


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

GBS status
our) • Single combined culture from vagina and anorectal area - patient may do own swab after instruction • If positive, antibiotic prophylaxis given in labour to reduce risk of neonatal GBS infection • If negative, swab within <span>5 weeks of delivery, no antibiotics in labour unless indicated for maternal pyrexia, etc. • If any GBS bacteriuria during pregnancy, treat as GBS positive (indicator of heavy coloniz







Flashcard 1410279279884

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) status:
• Done at 36 weeks (earlier if threatened preterm labour)
• Single combined culture from vagina and anorectal area - patient may do own swab after instruction
• If positive, antibiotic prophylaxis given in labour to reduce risk of neonatal GBS infection
• If negative, swab within 5 weeks of delivery, no antibiotics in labour unless indicated for maternal pyrexia, etc.
• If any [...] during pregnancy, treat as GBS positive (indicator of heavy colonization, no need to do vaginal-rectal swab)
• This is NOT a maternal infection: about 10-30% of women are carriers of GBS; status can change over time
Answer
GBS bacteriuria


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

GBS status
uction • If positive, antibiotic prophylaxis given in labour to reduce risk of neonatal GBS infection • If negative, swab within 5 weeks of delivery, no antibiotics in labour unless indicated for maternal pyrexia, etc. • If any <span>GBS bacteriuria during pregnancy, treat as GBS positive (indicator of heavy colonization, no need to do vaginal-rectal swab) • This is NOT a maternal infection: about 10-30% of women are carriers







Routine Investigations at First Visit
#obgyn
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)

statusnot read reprioritisations
last reprioritisation on reading queue position [%]
started reading on finished reading on




Flashcard 1410282425612

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
[...]
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
CBC


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
Routine Investigations at First Visit: • CBC • Rubella status • Hepatitis B Surface Antigen • VDRL (Syphilis) • Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies) • Urinaly







Flashcard 1410283998476

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
[...] status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
Rubella


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
Routine Investigations at First Visit: • CBC • Rubella status • Hepatitis B Surface Antigen • VDRL (Syphilis) • Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies) • Urinalysis (Routine an







Flashcard 1410285571340

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
[...] Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
Hepatitis B


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
Routine Investigations at First Visit: • CBC • Rubella status • Hepatitis B Surface Antigen • VDRL (Syphilis) • Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies) • Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic) • Mid-







Flashcard 1410287144204

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
[...]
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
VDRL (Syphilis)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
Routine Investigations at First Visit: • CBC • Rubella status • Hepatitis B Surface Antigen • VDRL (Syphilis) • Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies) • Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic) • Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sens







Flashcard 1410288717068

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
[...] status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
Blood Group and Rh


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
Routine Investigations at First Visit: • CBC • Rubella status • Hepatitis B Surface Antigen • VDRL (Syphilis) • Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies) • Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic) • Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women hav







Flashcard 1410290289932

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
[...]
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
y>Routine Investigations at First Visit: • CBC • Rubella status • Hepatitis B Surface Antigen • VDRL (Syphilis) • Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies) • Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic) • Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria) • Pap smear, if due • Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea a







Flashcard 1410291862796

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
[...] for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
Mid-Stream Urine (MSU)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
t Visit: • CBC • Rubella status • Hepatitis B Surface Antigen • VDRL (Syphilis) • Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies) • Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic) • <span>Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria) • Pap smear, if due • Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia • TSH routin







Flashcard 1410293435660

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
[...], if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
Pap smear


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
; • Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies) • Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic) • Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria) • <span>Pap smear, if due • Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia • TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of rout







Flashcard 1410295008524

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for [...]
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
Gonorrhea and Chlamydia


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
d blood cell antibodies) • Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic) • Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria) • Pap smear, if due • Cervical cultures or urine screen for <span>Gonorrhea and Chlamydia • TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended agai







Flashcard 1410296581388

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
[...] for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
Cervical cultures or urine screen


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
atus, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies) • Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic) • Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria) • Pap smear, if due • <span>Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia • TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACO







Flashcard 1410298154252

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against [...] of asymptomatic women)
Answer
routine screening


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Routine Investigations at First Visit
cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia • TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against <span>routine screening of asymptomatic women)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410299727116

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Routine Investigations at First Visit:
• CBC
• Rubella status
• Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
• VDRL (Syphilis)
• Blood Group and Rh status, Antibody Screen (to check for red blood cell antibodies)
• Urinalysis (Routine and Microscopic)
• Mid-Stream Urine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria)
• Pap smear, if due
• Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
• TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically [...] in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)
Answer
depressed


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
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Routine Investigations at First Visit
ine (MSU) for culture and sensitivity (2-7% or women have asymptomatic bacteriuria) • Pap smear, if due • Cervical cultures or urine screen for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia • TSH routinely done by many OBs; TSH often physiologically <span>depressed in early pregnancy, value of routine TSH screening is currently in doubt (2015 ACOG Guideline recommended against routine screening of asymptomatic women)<span><body><html>







Consented investigations - HIV
#obgyn
Consented investigations in pregnancy - HIV
• Long-term maternal outcomes are better if HIV+ status is known and treated
• Known HIV+ status allows people to practice safer sex and protect partners (if uninfected)
• Dramatically decreased risk of vertical transmission to fetus if optimally treated in pregnancy (from 25% to 2%)
• Breastfeeding contraindicated
• Diagnosis of HIV+ status can impact current and previous partner(s), family, ability to obtain health and life insurance

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Flashcard 1410301824268

Tags
#obgyn
Question
What are consented investigations during pregnancy?
Answer
HIV, Hep C, Herpes Simplex


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Flashcard 1410305232140

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - HIV
• Long-term maternal outcomes are better if HIV+ status is known and treated
• Dramatically decreased risk of [...] to fetus if optimally treated in pregnancy (from 25% to 2%)
• Breastfeeding contraindicated
Answer
vertical transmission


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Consented investigations - HIV
tions in pregnancy - HIV • Long-term maternal outcomes are better if HIV+ status is known and treated • Known HIV+ status allows people to practice safer sex and protect partners (if uninfected) • Dramatically decreased risk of <span>vertical transmission to fetus if optimally treated in pregnancy (from 25% to 2%) • Breastfeeding contraindicated • Diagnosis of HIV+ status can impact current and previous partner(s), family, abil







Flashcard 1410306805004

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - HIV
• Long-term maternal outcomes are better if HIV+ status is known and treated
• Known HIV+ status allows people to practice safer sex and protect partners (if uninfected)
• Dramatically decreased risk of vertical transmission to fetus if optimally treated in pregnancy (from 25% to 2%)
[...] contraindicated
• Diagnosis of HIV+ status can impact current and previous partner(s), family, ability to obtain health and life insurance
Answer
Breastfeeding


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Consented investigations - HIV
known and treated • Known HIV+ status allows people to practice safer sex and protect partners (if uninfected) • Dramatically decreased risk of vertical transmission to fetus if optimally treated in pregnancy (from 25% to 2%) • <span>Breastfeeding contraindicated • Diagnosis of HIV+ status can impact current and previous partner(s), family, ability to obtain health and life insurance<span><body><html>







Consented investigations - Hep C
#obgyn
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Hep C
• If positive for HIV, Hepatitis B or other risk factors (blood transfusion prior to 1984 and untested, current or previous partner with known infection, intravenous drug use, sex trade workers, extensive piercing or tattooing)
• No vaccine or cure but appropriate treatment and Counselling can result in better outcomes
• Vertical transmission rate low (5%)
• Diagnosis of HepC+ status can impact current and previous partner(s), family, ability to obtain health and life insurance

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Flashcard 1410309688588

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Hep C
• If positive for [...], Hepatitis B or other risk factors (blood transfusion prior to 1984 and untested, current or previous partner with known infection, intravenous drug use, sex trade workers, extensive piercing or tattooing)
• No vaccine or cure but appropriate treatment and Counselling can result in better outcomes
• Vertical transmission rate low (5%)
Answer
HIV


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Consented investigations - Hep C
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Hep C • If positive for HIV, Hepatitis B or other risk factors (blood transfusion prior to 1984 and untested, current or previous partner with known infection, intravenous drug use, sex trade workers, extensive pi







Flashcard 1410311261452

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Hep C
• If positive for HIV, [...] or other risk factors (blood transfusion prior to 1984 and untested, current or previous partner with known infection, intravenous drug use, sex trade workers, extensive piercing or tattooing)
• No vaccine or cure but appropriate treatment and Counselling can result in better outcomes
• Vertical transmission rate low (5%)
• Diagnosis of HepC+ status can impact current and previous partner(s), family, ability to obtain health and life insurance
Answer
Hepatitis B


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Consented investigations - Hep C
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Hep C • If positive for HIV, Hepatitis B or other risk factors (blood transfusion prior to 1984 and untested, current or previous partner with known infection, intravenous drug use, sex trade workers, extensive piercing or tat







Flashcard 1410312834316

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Hep C
• If positive for HIV, Hepatitis B or other risk factors ([...])
• No vaccine or cure but appropriate treatment and Counselling can result in better outcomes
• Vertical transmission rate low (5%)
• Diagnosis of HepC+ status can impact current and previous partner(s), family, ability to obtain health and life insurance
Answer
blood transfusion prior to 1984 and untested, current or previous partner with known infection, intravenous drug use, sex trade workers, extensive piercing or tattooing


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Consented investigations - Hep C
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Hep C • If positive for HIV, Hepatitis B or other risk factors (blood transfusion prior to 1984 and untested, current or previous partner with known infection, intravenous drug use, sex trade workers, extensive piercing or tattooing) • No vaccine or cure but appropriate treatment and Counselling can result in better outcomes • Vertical transmission rate low (5%) • Diagnosis of HepC+ status can impact







Flashcard 1410314407180

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Hep C
• If positive for HIV, Hepatitis B or other risk factors (blood transfusion prior to 1984 and untested, current or previous partner with known infection, intravenous drug use, sex trade workers, extensive piercing or tattooing)
• No [...] but appropriate treatment and Counselling can result in better outcomes
• Vertical transmission rate low (5%)
• Diagnosis of HepC+ status can impact current and previous partner(s), family, ability to obtain health and life insurance
Answer
vaccine or cure


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Consented investigations - Hep C
#13; • If positive for HIV, Hepatitis B or other risk factors (blood transfusion prior to 1984 and untested, current or previous partner with known infection, intravenous drug use, sex trade workers, extensive piercing or tattooing) • No <span>vaccine or cure but appropriate treatment and Counselling can result in better outcomes • Vertical transmission rate low (5%) • Diagnosis of HepC+ status can impact current and previous partn







Consented investigations - herpes simplex
#obgyn
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Herpes Simplex
• If visible vulvar ulcers
• Treatment during pregnancy can shorten outbreaks
• Prophylaxis can be given in third trimester to decrease need for Cesarean section (due to active outbreak at the time of labour)

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Flashcard 1410317290764

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Herpes Simplex
• If visible [...]
• Treatment during pregnancy can shorten outbreaks
• Prophylaxis can be given in third trimester to decrease need for Cesarean section (due to active outbreak at the time of labour)
Answer
vulvar ulcers


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Consented investigations - herpes simplex
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Herpes Simplex • If visible vulvar ulcers • Treatment during pregnancy can shorten outbreaks • Prophylaxis can be given in third trimester to decrease need for Cesarean section (due to active outbreak at the time of l







Flashcard 1410318863628

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Herpes Simplex
• If visible vulvar ulcers
• Treatment during pregnancy can shorten [...]
• Prophylaxis can be given in third trimester to decrease need for Cesarean section (due to active outbreak at the time of labour)
Answer
outbreaks


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Consented investigations - herpes simplex
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Herpes Simplex • If visible vulvar ulcers • Treatment during pregnancy can shorten outbreaks • Prophylaxis can be given in third trimester to decrease need for Cesarean section (due to active outbreak at the time of labour)







Flashcard 1410320436492

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Herpes Simplex
• If visible vulvar ulcers
• Treatment during pregnancy can shorten outbreaks
• Prophylaxis can be given in [...] trimester to decrease need for Cesarean section (due to active outbreak at the time of labour)
Answer
third


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Consented investigations - herpes simplex
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Herpes Simplex • If visible vulvar ulcers • Treatment during pregnancy can shorten outbreaks • Prophylaxis can be given in third trimester to decrease need for Cesarean section (due to active outbreak at the time of labour)







Flashcard 1410322009356

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Consented investigations in pregnancy - Herpes Simplex
• If visible vulvar ulcers
• Treatment during pregnancy can shorten outbreaks
• Prophylaxis can be given in third trimester to decrease need for Cesarean section (due to [...] at the time of labour)
Answer
active outbreak


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Consented investigations - herpes simplex
n>Consented investigations in pregnancy - Herpes Simplex • If visible vulvar ulcers • Treatment during pregnancy can shorten outbreaks • Prophylaxis can be given in third trimester to decrease need for Cesarean section (due to <span>active outbreak at the time of labour)<span><body><html>







Other investigations to consider in pregnancy
#obgyn
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy:
• Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection)
• Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners)
• Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers)
• Early GCT/ GTT if:
---• previously large infant
---• obesity
---• previous gestational diabetes
• Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history
• Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients)
• TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)

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last reprioritisation on reading queue position [%]
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Flashcard 1410324892940

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy:
[...] titre (if no clear history of childhood infection)
• Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners)
• Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers)
• Early GCT/ GTT if:
---• previously large infant
---• obesity
---• previous gestational diabetes
• Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history
• Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients)
• TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)
Answer
Varicella zoster


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Other investigations to consider in pregnancy
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy: • Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection) • Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners) • Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers) • Early GCT/ GTT if







Flashcard 1410326465804

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy:
• Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection)
[...] (house pets, gardeners)
• Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers)
• Early GCT/ GTT if:
---• previously large infant
---• obesity
---• previous gestational diabetes
• Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history
• Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients)
• TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)
Answer
Toxoplasmosis


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Other investigations to consider in pregnancy
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy: • Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection) • Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners) • Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers) • Early GCT/ GTT if: ---• previously large infant ---• obesity ---• previous







Flashcard 1410328038668

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy:
• Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection)
• Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners)
[...] (primary school teachers, daycare workers)
• Early GCT/ GTT if:
---• previously large infant
---• obesity
---• previous gestational diabetes
• Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history
• Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients)
• TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)
Answer
Parvovirus B19


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Other investigations to consider in pregnancy
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy: • Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection) • Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners) • Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers) • Early GCT/ GTT if: ---• previously large infant ---• obesity ---• previous gestational diabetes • Sickle cell scree







Flashcard 1410329611532

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy:
• Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection)
• Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners)
• Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers)
• Early GCT/ GTT if:
---• previously [...]
---• obesity
---• previous gestational diabetes
• Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history
• Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients)
• TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)
Answer
large infant


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Other investigations to consider in pregnancy
regnancy: • Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection) • Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners) • Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers) • Early GCT/ GTT if: ---• previously <span>large infant ---• obesity ---• previous gestational diabetes • Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history • Hemoglobin







Flashcard 1410331184396

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy:
• Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection)
• Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners)
• Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers)
• Early GCT/ GTT if:
---• previously large infant
---• [...]
---• previous gestational diabetes
• Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history
• Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients)
• TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)
Answer
obesity


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Other investigations to consider in pregnancy
ella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection) • Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners) • Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers) • Early GCT/ GTT if: ---• previously large infant ---• <span>obesity ---• previous gestational diabetes • Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history • Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestation







Flashcard 1410332757260

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy:
• Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection)
• Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners)
• Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers)
• Early GCT/ GTT if:
---• previously large infant
---• obesity
---• previous [...]
• Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history
• Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients)
• TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)
Answer
gestational diabetes


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Other investigations to consider in pregnancy
ear history of childhood infection) • Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners) • Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers) • Early GCT/ GTT if: ---• previously large infant ---• obesity ---• previous <span>gestational diabetes • Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history • Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients) • TB (family







Flashcard 1410334330124

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy:
• Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection)
• Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners)
• Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers)
• Early GCT/ GTT if:
---• previously large infant
---• obesity
---• previous gestational diabetes
• Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history
[...] (pre-gestational diabetic patients)
• TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)
Answer
Hemoglobin A1C


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Other investigations to consider in pregnancy
workers) • Early GCT/ GTT if: ---• previously large infant ---• obesity ---• previous gestational diabetes • Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history • <span>Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients) • TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410335902988

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Other investigations to consider in pregnancy:
• Varicella zoster titre (if no clear history of childhood infection)
• Toxoplasmosis (house pets, gardeners)
• Parvovirus B19 (primary school teachers, daycare workers)
• Early GCT/ GTT if:
---• previously large infant
---• obesity
---• previous gestational diabetes
• Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history
• Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients)
[...] (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)
Answer
TB


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Other investigations to consider in pregnancy
rge infant ---• obesity ---• previous gestational diabetes • Sickle cell screen/hemoglobin electrophoresis/Ashkenazi panel depending on ethnic background, history • Hemoglobin A1C (pre-gestational diabetic patients) • <span>TB (family or household contact, symptoms, homeless)<span><body><html>







NIPT
#obgyn
NIPT (Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing):
• Peripheral blood test which analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation
• Screens abnormalities of chromosomes 21, 18, 13, X and Y
• Very high detection rate for Down Syndrome (>99%), as well as Trisomy 18 and 13 when validated in high-risk pregnancies
• Applicable for singleton and uncomplicated twin pregnancies from about 10 weeks
• Cost approx. $500 - Ontario Ministry of Health will cover cost for women aged 40 and over, or with positive screening tests or other major risk factors.

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Flashcard 1410338000140

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Non-invasive prenatal genetic screening should be offered to who?
Answer
every pregnant woman


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Flashcard 1410341670156

Tags
#ankle
Question
What is a grade 1 ankle sprain ?
Answer
Partial rupture of the anterior talofibular ligament and/or the calcaneofibular ligament


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Flashcard 1410346126604

Tags
#obgyn
Question
NIPT (Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing):
• Peripheral blood test which analyzes [...] in the maternal circulation
• Screens abnormalities of chromosomes 21, 18, 13, X and Y
• Very high detection rate for Down Syndrome (>99%), as well as Trisomy 18 and 13 when validated in high-risk pregnancies
• Applicable for singleton and uncomplicated twin pregnancies from about 10 weeks
• Cost approx. $500 - Ontario Ministry of Health will cover cost for women aged 40 and over, or with positive screening tests or other major risk factors.
Answer
cell-free fetal DNA


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

NIPT
NIPT (Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing): • Peripheral blood test which analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation • Screens abnormalities of chromosomes 21, 18, 13, X and Y • Very high detection rate for Down Syndrome (>99%), as well as Trisomy 18 and 13 whe







Flashcard 1410347699468

Tags
#obgyn
Question
NIPT (Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing):
• Peripheral blood test which analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation
• Screens abnormalities of chromosomes [...]
• Very high detection rate for Down Syndrome (>99%), as well as Trisomy 18 and 13 when validated in high-risk pregnancies
• Applicable for singleton and uncomplicated twin pregnancies from about 10 weeks
• Cost approx. $500 - Ontario Ministry of Health will cover cost for women aged 40 and over, or with positive screening tests or other major risk factors.
Answer
21, 18, 13, X and Y


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

NIPT
NIPT (Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing): • Peripheral blood test which analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation • Screens abnormalities of chromosomes 21, 18, 13, X and Y • Very high detection rate for Down Syndrome (>99%), as well as Trisomy 18 and 13 when validated in high-risk pregnancies • Applicable for singleton and uncomplicated twin







Flashcard 1410349272332

Tags
#obgyn
Question
NIPT (Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing):
• Peripheral blood test which analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation
• Screens abnormalities of chromosomes 21, 18, 13, X and Y
• Very high detection rate for Down Syndrome (>99%), as well as Trisomy 18 and 13 when validated in high-risk pregnancies
• Applicable for singleton and uncomplicated twin pregnancies from about [...] weeks
• Cost approx. $500 - Ontario Ministry of Health will cover cost for women aged 40 and over, or with positive screening tests or other major risk factors.
Answer
10


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

NIPT
of chromosomes 21, 18, 13, X and Y • Very high detection rate for Down Syndrome (>99%), as well as Trisomy 18 and 13 when validated in high-risk pregnancies • Applicable for singleton and uncomplicated twin pregnancies from about <span>10 weeks • Cost approx. $500 - Ontario Ministry of Health will cover cost for women aged 40 and over, or with positive screening tests or other major risk factors.<span></body







CVS - invasive diagnostic testing
#obgyn
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS):
• 10-14 wks
• Placental biopsy via transcervical or transabdominal approach
• Preliminary results for very high risk patients may be available in a few days [by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (“FISH”) analysis or QF-PCR (polymerase chain reaction)]; microarray may be done
• Early termination of affected pregnancies can be offered (psychological and physical advantages)
• Procedure related pregnancy loss rate 1-2%
• Slightly higher rate of cell culture failure than amniocentesis
• Rarely, inaccurate results due to placental mosaicism

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Flashcard 1410352155916

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS):
[...] wks
• Placental biopsy via transcervical or transabdominal approach
• Preliminary results for very high risk patients may be available in a few days [by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (“FISH”) analysis or QF-PCR (polymerase chain reaction)]; microarray may be done
• Early termination of affected pregnancies can be offered (psychological and physical advantages)
• Procedure related pregnancy loss rate 1-2%
• Slightly higher rate of cell culture failure than amniocentesis
• Rarely, inaccurate results due to placental mosaicism
Answer
10-14


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CVS - invasive diagnostic testing
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS): • 10-14 wks • Placental biopsy via transcervical or transabdominal approach • Preliminary results for very high risk patients may be available in a few days [by fluorescence in-situ h







Flashcard 1410353728780

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS):
• 10-14 wks
[...] biopsy via transcervical or transabdominal approach
• Preliminary results for very high risk patients may be available in a few days [by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (“FISH”) analysis or QF-PCR (polymerase chain reaction)]; microarray may be done
• Early termination of affected pregnancies can be offered (psychological and physical advantages)
• Procedure related pregnancy loss rate 1-2%
• Slightly higher rate of cell culture failure than amniocentesis
• Rarely, inaccurate results due to placental mosaicism
Answer
Placental


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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

CVS - invasive diagnostic testing
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS): • 10-14 wks • Placental biopsy via transcervical or transabdominal approach • Preliminary results for very high risk patients may be available in a few days [by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (“FISH”)







Flashcard 1410355301644

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS):
• 10-14 wks
• Placental biopsy via transcervical or transabdominal approach
• Preliminary results for very high risk patients may be available in a few days [by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (“FISH”) analysis or QF-PCR (polymerase chain reaction)]; microarray may be done
[...] of affected pregnancies can be offered (psychological and physical advantages)
• Procedure related pregnancy loss rate 1-2%
• Slightly higher rate of cell culture failure than amniocentesis
• Rarely, inaccurate results due to placental mosaicism
Answer
Early termination


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scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

CVS - invasive diagnostic testing
al or transabdominal approach • Preliminary results for very high risk patients may be available in a few days [by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (“FISH”) analysis or QF-PCR (polymerase chain reaction)]; microarray may be done • <span>Early termination of affected pregnancies can be offered (psychological and physical advantages) • Procedure related pregnancy loss rate 1-2% • Slightly higher rate of cell culture failure than







amniocentesis
#obgyn
Amniocentesis:
• Normally 15 to 20 weeks but in special circumstances may be done at any time after 15 weeks
• Collection of amniotic fluid transabdominally under ultrasound guidance
• Karyotype of fetal cells obtained from amniotic fluid – FISH or QF-PCR analysis results in 2-3 days, full karyotype from cell culture and microarray may be done
• Pregnancy loss rate traditionally quoted as 1/200; FASTER study data from USA suggests it could be much lower
• Failures may occur if inadequate sample (oligohydramnios), failure of fetal cell culture, or contamination of sample by maternal cells

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Flashcard 1410358185228

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Amniocentesis:
• Normally [...] weeks but in special circumstances may be done at any time after 15 weeks
• Collection of amniotic fluid transabdominally under ultrasound guidance
• Karyotype of fetal cells obtained from amniotic fluid – FISH or QF-PCR analysis results in 2-3 days, full karyotype from cell culture and microarray may be done
• Pregnancy loss rate traditionally quoted as 1/200; FASTER study data from USA suggests it could be much lower
• Failures may occur if inadequate sample (oligohydramnios), failure of fetal cell culture, or contamination of sample by maternal cells
Answer
15 to 20


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

amniocentesis
Amniocentesis : • Normally 15 to 20 weeks but in special circumstances may be done at any time after 15 weeks • Collection of amniotic fluid transabdominally under ultrasound guidance • Karyotype of fetal cells







Flashcard 1410359758092

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Amniocentesis:
• Normally 15 to 20 weeks but in special circumstances may be done at any time after 15 weeks
• Collection of amniotic fluid [...] under ultrasound guidance
• Karyotype of fetal cells obtained from amniotic fluid – FISH or QF-PCR analysis results in 2-3 days, full karyotype from cell culture and microarray may be done
• Pregnancy loss rate traditionally quoted as 1/200; FASTER study data from USA suggests it could be much lower
• Failures may occur if inadequate sample (oligohydramnios), failure of fetal cell culture, or contamination of sample by maternal cells
Answer
transabdominally


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

amniocentesis
Amniocentesis : • Normally 15 to 20 weeks but in special circumstances may be done at any time after 15 weeks • Collection of amniotic fluid transabdominally under ultrasound guidance • Karyotype of fetal cells obtained from amniotic fluid – FISH or QF-PCR analysis results in 2-3 days, full karyotype from cell culture and microarray may







Flashcard 1410361330956

Tags
#obgyn
Question
Amniocentesis:
• Normally 15 to 20 weeks but in special circumstances may be done at any time after 15 weeks
• Collection of amniotic fluid transabdominally under ultrasound guidance
• Karyotype of [...] obtained from amniotic fluid – FISH or QF-PCR analysis results in 2-3 days, full karyotype from cell culture and microarray may be done
• Pregnancy loss rate traditionally quoted as 1/200; FASTER study data from USA suggests it could be much lower
• Failures may occur if inadequate sample (oligohydramnios), failure of fetal cell culture, or contamination of sample by maternal cells
Answer
fetal cells


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

amniocentesis
ead><head>Amniocentesis : • Normally 15 to 20 weeks but in special circumstances may be done at any time after 15 weeks • Collection of amniotic fluid transabdominally under ultrasound guidance • Karyotype of fetal cells obtained from amniotic fluid – FISH or QF-PCR analysis results in 2-3 days, full karyotype from cell culture and microarray may be done • Pregnancy loss rate traditionally quoted a







First prenatal visit
#obgyn
First prenatal visit
• Standard records (Ontario Ministry of Health Antenatal Records 1 and 2)
• Pregnancy considered in trimesters (three in total, each 12 to 14 weeks in length)
• Each pregnancy should be assigned a risk category (see reverse side of AN forms) to ensure appropriate investigations, surveillance and management

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Flashcard 1410364214540

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First prenatal visit
[...]
• Pregnancy considered in trimesters (three in total, each 12 to 14 weeks in length)
• Each pregnancy should be assigned a risk category (see reverse side of AN forms) to ensure appropriate investigations, surveillance and management
Answer
Standard records (Ontario Ministry of Health Antenatal Records 1 and 2)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First prenatal visit
First prenatal visit • Standard records (Ontario Ministry of Health Antenatal Records 1 and 2) • Pregnancy considered in trimesters (three in total, each 12 to 14 weeks in length) • Each pregnancy should be assigned a risk category (see reverse side of AN forms) to ensu







Flashcard 1410365787404

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First prenatal visit
• Standard records (Ontario Ministry of Health Antenatal Records 1 and 2)
• Pregnancy considered in trimesters (three in total, each [...] weeks in length)
• Each pregnancy should be assigned a risk category (see reverse side of AN forms) to ensure appropriate investigations, surveillance and management
Answer
12 to 14


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First prenatal visit
First prenatal visit • Standard records (Ontario Ministry of Health Antenatal Records 1 and 2) • Pregnancy considered in trimesters (three in total, each 12 to 14 weeks in length) • Each pregnancy should be assigned a risk category (see reverse side of AN forms) to ensure appropriate investigations, surveillance and management<







antenatal visit history
#obgyn
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)

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Flashcard 1410368670988

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. [...]
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
History of Present Pregnancy:


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
First Prenatal Visit History 1. History of Present Pregnancy: • LMP: first day of last normal period • Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement) 2. Past Obstetrical History: • All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G







Flashcard 1410370243852

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. [...]
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
Past Obstetrical History:


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
First Prenatal Visit History 1. History of Present Pregnancy: • LMP: first day of last normal period • Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement) 2. Past Obstetrical History: • All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P • For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL: G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole,







Flashcard 1410371816716

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. [...]
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
Past Medical and Surgical History


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
on, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies. 3. <span>Past Medical and Surgical History 4. Family History: genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity 5. Medications, Allergies 6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home







Flashcard 1410373389580

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. [...]:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
Family History


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies. 3. Past Medical and Surgical History 4. <span>Family History: genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity 5. Medications, Allergies 6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment 7. Re







Flashcard 1410374962444

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5.
[...] 6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
Medications, Allergies


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
t or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies. 3. Past Medical and Surgical History 4. Family History: genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity 5. <span>Medications, Allergies 6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment 7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410376535308

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. [...]: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
Social History


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
ntepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies. 3. Past Medical and Surgical History 4. Family History: genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity 5. Medications, Allergies 6. <span>Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment 7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410378108172

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. [...] (tailor to patient)
Answer
Review of Systems


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
3. Past Medical and Surgical History 4. Family History: genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity 5. Medications, Allergies 6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment 7. <span>Review of Systems (tailor to patient)<span><body><html>







Flashcard 1410379681036

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: [...]
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
first day of last normal period


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
First Prenatal Visit History 1. History of Present Pregnancy: • LMP: first day of last normal period • Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement) 2. Past Obstetrical History: • All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P • For more complicated patients, c







Flashcard 1410381253900

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine
[...] 2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
EDC (estimated date of confinement)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
First Prenatal Visit History 1. History of Present Pregnancy: • LMP: first day of last normal period • Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement) 2. Past Obstetrical History: • All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P • For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL: G: any pregnan







Flashcard 1410382826764

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of [...]
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
G and P


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
natal Visit History 1. History of Present Pregnancy: • LMP: first day of last normal period • Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement) 2. Past Obstetrical History: • All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of <span>G and P • For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL: G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current) T: term – infants delivered after 37 complet







Flashcard 1410384399628

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: [...]
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
ment) 2. Past Obstetrical History: • All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P • For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL: G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current) T: <span>term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams L: live – number of currently living ch







Flashcard 1410385972492

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: [...]
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
n histories include a summary of G and P • For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL: G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current) T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks P: <span>preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams L: live – number of currently living children • If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, i







Flashcard 1410387545356

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: [...]
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL: G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current) T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks A: <span>abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams L: live – number of currently living children • If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire: ---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? d







Flashcard 1410389118220

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: [...]
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
live – number of currently living children


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
ude losses, ectopic, mole, current) T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams L: <span>live – number of currently living children • If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire: ---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - different







Flashcard 1410390691084

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen ([...]?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
ed 20 - 36+6 weeks A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams L: live – number of currently living children • If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire: ---• how did loss happen (<span>did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix) ---• was a surgical procedure required such







Flashcard 1410392263948

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as [...]
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
of currently living children • If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire: ---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as <span>therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix) ---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation) ---• was medical intervention required such as misop







Flashcard 1410393836812

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a [...]
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
d and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix) ---• was a surgical procedure required such as a <span>D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation) ---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum) • If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire: ---• date of delivery, loca







Flashcard 1410395409676

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as [...]
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix) ---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation) ---• was medical intervention required such as <span>misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum) • If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire: ---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneo







Flashcard 1410396982540

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• [...]; were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies.
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation) ---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum) • If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire: ---• <span>date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies. 3. Past Medical and Surgical History 4. Family History: genetic diseases, congeni







Flashcard 1410398555404

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit History
1. History of Present Pregnancy:
• LMP: first day of last normal period
• Determine EDC (estimated date of confinement)
2. Past Obstetrical History:
• All Ob/Gyn histories include a summary of G and P
• For more complicated patients, can further categorize into GTPAL:
G: any pregnancy (include losses, ectopic, mole, current)
T: term – infants delivered after 37 completed weeks
P: preterm – infants delivered 20 - 36+6 weeks
A: abortions – pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks and/or fetus weighing <500 grams
L: live – number of currently living children
• If pregnancy loss prior to 20 weeks, inquire:
---• how did loss happen (did they have a termination? or bleed and cramp? did they feels pressure and have PPROM?) - differentiate between causes such as therapeutic abortion, spontaneous abortion, fetal anomaly, maternal issues (incompetent cervix)
---• was a surgical procedure required such as a D and C (Dilatation and Curettage) or D and E (Dilatation and Evacuation)
---• was medical intervention required such as misoprostol (for missed abortion or blighted ovum)
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire:
---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any [...].
3. Past Medical and Surgical History
4. Family History:
genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity
5. Medications, Allergies
6. Social History: smoking, alcohol, recreational drugs, home environment
7. Review of Systems (tailor to patient)
Answer
antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

antenatal visit history
• If pregnancy loss after 20 weeks, inquire: ---• date of delivery, location, sex, birth weight, gestational age at delivery, mode of delivery (vaginal – assisted or spontaneous; Cesarean – low segment or classical); were there any <span>antepartum, intrapartum or postpartum complications and/or fetal anomalies. 3. Past Medical and Surgical History 4. Family History: genetic diseases, congenital malformations, consanguinity 5. Medications, Allergies 6. Social History:







First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
#obgyn
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities

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THE GOAL OF AN ARGUMENT
#rhetoric
Ask yourself what you want at the end of an argument:

Change your audience’s mind?

Get it to do something or stop doing it?

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STEPS TO CONVINCE
#rhetoric
Start by changing the mood, turn it into a receptive audience, eager to hear your solution.

Then change its mind. Convince that something is the best way to achieve something.

Finally, fill it with the desire to act. Show them that the action you want to take is the best one, and inspire it. This requires stronger emotions that turn a decision into a commitment.

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#rhetoric
Self-deprecating humor is an acceptable way to brag. Mentioning a moment of boneheadedness at my former company beats the far more obnoxious “I was a high-level manager at a publishing company that had twenty-three million customers the year I left.” The term du jour for this device: humblebrag.

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#rhetoric
Self-deprecating humor is an acceptable way to brag. Mentioning a moment of boneheadedness at my former company beats the far more obnoxious “I was a high-level manager at a publishing company that had twenty-three million customers the year I left.” The term du jour for this device: humblebrag.

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#rhetoric
You have your personal goal (what you want out of the argument) and your audience goals (mood, mind, action). Now, before you begin arguing, ask yourself one more question: What’s the issue? According to Aristotle, all issues boil down to just three (the Greeks were crazy about that number):
Blame
Values
Choice

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#rhetoric
THE THREE CORE ISSUES: Blame, values, choice.

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Flashcard 1410431061260

Tags
#rhetoric
Question
THE THREE CORE ISSUES: Blame, [...], choice.
Answer
values


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Open it
THE THREE CORE ISSUES: Blame, values, choice.







Flashcard 1410432634124

Tags
#rhetoric
Question
THE THREE CORE ISSUES: [...], values, choice.
Answer
Blame


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Open it
THE THREE CORE ISSUES: Blame, values, choice.







Flashcard 1410434206988

Tags
#rhetoric
Question
THE THREE CORE ISSUES: Blame, values, [...]
Answer
choice.


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Open it
THE THREE CORE ISSUES: Blame, values, choice.







Flashcard 1410435779852

Tags
#rhetoric
Question
THE THREE CORE ISSUES:
Answer
Blame, Values and Choice


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

Open it
THE THREE CORE ISSUES: Blame, values, choice.







#rhetoric
Who moved my cheese? This, of course, is a blame issue. Whodunit?

Should abortion be legal? Values. What’s morally right or wrong about letting a woman choose whether or not to end the budding life inside her own body? (My choice of words implies the values each side holds— a woman’s right to her own body, and the sanctity of life.)

Should we build a plant in Camden? Choice: to build or not to build, Camden or not Camden.

Should Tom Cruise and Katie Holmes have split up? Values— not moral ones, necessarily, but what you and your interlocutor value. Were they just too cute to separate?

Did O.J. do it? Blame.

Shall we dance? Choice: to dance or not to dance.

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#rhetoric
Blame = Past

Values = Present

Choice = Future

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#rhetori
The rhetoric of the past, he said, deals with issues of justice. This is the judicial argument of the courtroom. Aristotle called it “forensic” rhetoric, because it covers forensics.

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#rhetoric
The rhetoric of the present handles praise and condemnation, separating the good from the bad, distinguishing groups from other groups and individuals from each other. It's called Demonstrative.

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#rhetoric
Present-tense (demonstrative) rhetoric tends to finish with people bonding or separating.

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#rhetoric
Present-tense (demonstrative) rhetoric tends to finish with people bonding or separating.

Past-tense (forensic) rhetoric threatens punishment.

Future-tense (deliberative) argument promises a payoff.

You can see why Aristotle dedicated the rhetoric of decision making to the future.

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#rhetoric
Consider “What should we do about it?” and “How can we keep it from happening again?” as rhetorical versions of WD-40 lubricant. The past and present can help you make a point, but any argument involving a decision eventually has to turn to the future.

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Facts do not exist in the future. We can know that the sun came up yesterday and that it shines now, but we can only predict that the sun will come up tomorrow.

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#rhetoric
A good persuader anticipates the audience’s objections. Ideally, you want to produce them even before the audience can. The technique makes your listeners more malleable. They begin to assume you’ll take care of all their qualms, and they lapse into a bovine state of persuadability. (Oh, wait. You’re the audience here. Scratch “bovine.”)

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Instead of helping us to find some elusive truth, deliberative argument deliberates, weighing one choice against the other, considering the circumstances. Choices: Beach or mountains this summer? Should your company replace its computers or hire a competent tech staff? Will Frodo come out as a gay Hobbit?

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#rhetoric
When you argue about values, you use demonstrative rhetoric, not deliberative. If you rely on a cosmic authority— God, or Bono— then the audience has no choice to make.

Eternal truths will answer these: Is there a God?

Is homosexuality immoral?

Is capitalism bad?

Should all students know the Ten Commandments?

In each case the argument has to rely on morals and metaphysics. And it takes place mostly in the present tense, the language of demonstrative rhetoric. It can be particularly maddening in a marital dispute, because it comes across as preachy. (Demonstrative rhetoric is the rhetoric of preachers, after all.) Besides, it is far more difficult to change someone’s values than to change her mind. After all, eternal truths are supposed to be … eternal.

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#rhetoric
Practical concerns are open to deliberative debate. Because deliberation has to do with choices, everything about it depends— on the circumstances, the time, the people involved, and whatever “public” you mean when you talk about public opinion. Deliberative argument relies on public opinion, not a higher power, to resolve questions.

The audience’s opinion will answer these: Should the state legislature raise taxes to fund decent schools?

Should you raise your kid’s allowance?

When should your company release its newest product?

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#rhetoric
SPOT THE INARGUABLE: It’s what is permanent, necessary, or undeniably true. If you think your opponent is wrong— if it ain’t necessarily so— then try to assess what the audience believes. You can challenge a belief, but deliberative argument prefers to use beliefs to persuasion’s advantage.

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Control the issue.
#rhetoric
Do you want to fix blame?

Define who meets or abuses your common values?

Or get your audience to make a choice?

The most productive arguments use choice as their central issue. Don’t let a debate swerve heedlessly into values or guilt. Keep it focused on choices that solve a problem to your audience’s (and your) advantage.

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#rhetoric
Control the clock. Keep your argument in the right tense. In a debate over choices, make sure it turns to the future.

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Flashcard 1410471169292

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: [...]
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• consider anatomic and physiologic effects of pregnancy
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
• if murmur is pathologic, consider maternal tolerance of pregnancy, echocardiogram, need for antibiotics for endocarditis prophylaxis during labour
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination 1. General : Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI) 2. Head and Neck : • thyroid exam • chloasma • gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy 3. Chest : • consider anatomic and physiolog







Flashcard 1410472742156

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
[...] exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• consider anatomic and physiologic effects of pregnancy
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
• if murmur is pathologic, consider maternal tolerance of pregnancy, echocardiogram, need for antibiotics for endocarditis prophylaxis during labour
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
thyroid


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination 1. General : Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI) 2. Head and Neck : • thyroid exam • chloasma • gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy 3. Chest : • consider anatomic and physiologic effects of pregnancy • elevated







Flashcard 1410474315020

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
[...]
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• consider anatomic and physiologic effects of pregnancy
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
• if murmur is pathologic, consider maternal tolerance of pregnancy, echocardiogram, need for antibiotics for endocarditis prophylaxis during labour
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
chloasma


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination 1. General : Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI) 2. Head and Neck : • thyroid exam • chloasma • gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy 3. Chest : • consider anatomic and physiologic effects of pregnancy • elevated diaphragm 4. He







Flashcard 1410475887884

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• consider anatomic and physiologic effects of pregnancy
• elevated [...]
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
• if murmur is pathologic, consider maternal tolerance of pregnancy, echocardiogram, need for antibiotics for endocarditis prophylaxis during labour
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
diaphragm


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
t (calculate BMI) 2. Head and Neck : • thyroid exam • chloasma • gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy 3. Chest : • consider anatomic and physiologic effects of pregnancy • elevated <span>diaphragm 4. Heart : • increased heart rate • murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic • if murmur is pathologic, consider maternal tolerance of pregnancy, echocardiogram, ne







Flashcard 1410477460748

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: [...]
3. Chest:
• consider anatomic and physiologic effects of pregnancy
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
• if murmur is pathologic, consider maternal tolerance of pregnancy, echocardiogram, need for antibiotics for endocarditis prophylaxis during labour
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination 1. General : Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI) 2. Head and Neck : • thyroid exam • chloasma • gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy 3. Chest : • consider anatomic and physiologic effects of pregnancy • elevated diaphragm 4. Heart : • increased heart rate • murmurs: flow versus possibl







Flashcard 1410479820044

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased [...]
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
heart rate


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI) 2. Head and Neck : • thyroid exam • chloasma • gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy 3. Chest : • elevated diaphragm 4. Heart : • increased <span>heart rate • murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic 5. Breast : • leakage • physiologic changes 6. Abdomen : • striae • linea nigra • rectus diastasis&#







Flashcard 1410481392908

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
[...]
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
leakage


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
; • chloasma • gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy 3. Chest : • elevated diaphragm 4. Heart : • increased heart rate • murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic 5. Breast : • <span>leakage • physiologic changes 6. Abdomen : • striae • linea nigra • rectus diastasis • uterus 7. Pelvic Examination : • External Genitalia Inspection:&







Flashcard 1410482965772

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
[...]
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
striae


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
epulis of pregnancy 3. Chest : • elevated diaphragm 4. Heart : • increased heart rate • murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic 5. Breast : • leakage • physiologic changes 6. Abdomen : • <span>striae • linea nigra • rectus diastasis • uterus 7. Pelvic Examination : • External Genitalia Inspection: ---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities ---•







Flashcard 1410484538636

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
[...]
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
linea nigra


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
gnancy 3. Chest : • elevated diaphragm 4. Heart : • increased heart rate • murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic 5. Breast : • leakage • physiologic changes 6. Abdomen : • striae • <span>linea nigra • rectus diastasis • uterus 7. Pelvic Examination : • External Genitalia Inspection: ---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities ---• previous surgeries







Flashcard 1410486111500

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
[...]
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
rectus diastasis


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
st : • elevated diaphragm 4. Heart : • increased heart rate • murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic 5. Breast : • leakage • physiologic changes 6. Abdomen : • striae • linea nigra • <span>rectus diastasis • uterus 7. Pelvic Examination : • External Genitalia Inspection: ---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities ---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilat







Flashcard 1410487684364

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• [...] sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
Chadwick’s


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
; • External Genitalia Inspection: ---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities ---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation • Internal Genitalia: ---• Speculum Exam • Inspection: ---• Vagina: ------• <span>Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration) ------• vaginitis (yeast is common) ---• Cervix: ------• Ectropion ------• Polyps • Cultures: ---• Chlamydial culture is take







Flashcard 1410489257228

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• [...] (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
vaginitis


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities ---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation • Internal Genitalia: ---• Speculum Exam • Inspection: ---• Vagina: ------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration) ------• <span>vaginitis (yeast is common) ---• Cervix: ------• Ectropion ------• Polyps • Cultures: ---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os ---• Gonorr







Flashcard 1410490830092

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis ([...] is common)
---• Cervix:
------• Ectropion
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
yeast


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
, ulcers, varicosities ---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation • Internal Genitalia: ---• Speculum Exam • Inspection: ---• Vagina: ------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration) ------• vaginitis (<span>yeast is common) ---• Cervix: ------• Ectropion ------• Polyps • Cultures: ---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os ---• Gonorrheal cu







Flashcard 1410492402956

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevated diaphragm
4. Heart:
• increased heart rate
• murmurs: flow versus possible pathologic
5. Breast:
• leakage
• physiologic changes
6. Abdomen:
• striae
• linea nigra
• rectus diastasis
• uterus
7. Pelvic Examination:
• External Genitalia Inspection:
---• lesions: condyloma, ulcers, varicosities
---• previous surgeries: female genital mutilation
• Internal Genitalia:
---• Speculum Exam
• Inspection:
---• Vagina:
------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration)
------• vaginitis (yeast is common)
---• Cervix:
------• [...]
------• Polyps
• Cultures:
---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os
---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix
• Pap:
---• Do not use intracervical brush during pregnancy - spatula or external brush only
• The cervix is often friable during pregnancy and may bleed from Pap - reassure patient that you are nowhere near the pregnancy and that spotting is normal after a Pap smear in pregnancy
• Bimanual Examination:
---• largely replaced by first trimester ultrasound.
---• Cervix: Hegar’s sign (softening)
• Uterus
---• size (ensure it is consistent with dates)
---• shape (expect it to be symmetrically enlarged)
---• consistency (expect soft)
---• if the uterus is firm, smaller than expected, irregularly enlarged, then reconsider dates, viability, uterine anomaly, ectopic pregnancy
• Adnexa: masses, their size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
• Bony pelvis (clinical pelvimetry to assess adequacy of pelvis for labour):
---• Type of pelvis:
------• gynecoid
------• android
------• anthropoid
------• platypelloid
---• Pelvic inlet:
------• sub-pubic arch (should not be narrow)
------• prominence of sacrum (should not be too prominent)
------• symphysis-sacral distance
---• Midpelvis: prominence of spines (should not be too prominent)
---• Pelvic outlet: inter-tuberous distance
8. Extremities: check for edema and varicosities
Answer
Ectropion


statusnot learnedmeasured difficulty37% [default]last interval [days]               
repetition number in this series0memorised on               scheduled repetition               
scheduled repetition interval               last repetition or drill

First Prenatal Visit Physical Exam
ies: female genital mutilation • Internal Genitalia: ---• Speculum Exam • Inspection: ---• Vagina: ------• Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration) ------• vaginitis (yeast is common) ---• Cervix: ------• <span>Ectropion ------• Polyps • Cultures: ---• Chlamydial culture is taken from just inside the external os ---• Gonorrheal culture from os/cervix • Pap: ---• Do not us







Flashcard 1410493975820

Tags
#obgyn
Question
First Prenatal Visit Physical Examination
1. General: Vital signs, Weight (calculate BMI)
2. Head and Neck:
• thyroid exam
• chloasma
• gums/mucous membranes: hyperemic/swollen; epulis of pregnancy
3. Chest:
• elevate